[Martin Taylor 2007.08.13.17.50]
[From Richard Kennaway (2007.08.13.1031 BST)]
Martin Taylor wrote:
I'm just back from a week away, and find a weird series of interchanges between you two, based entirely, so far as I can see, on your individual ideas about morality. I have seen no evidence of scientific enquiry from either of you on this matter.
I saw the purpose as elucidating our respective system concepts and references.
It may well have done that, but those are matters of private interest. I understood the interchange to have been intended to advance in some way our understanding of PCT in relation to political theory. I intervened in an apparently misguded attempt to steer the discussion more nearly in that direction.
Richard (and Rick): What are the side-effects of a transaction freely entered into? Do they ever disturb a controlled perception of anyone not party to the transaction? Do they ever affect another person's environmental feedback paths in such a way as to make control easier or more difficult?
They do indeed. In economics, this concept is called "externality".
Good. Though I'd quibble with identifying PCT side-effects with "externalities". The meanings and implications certainly overlap, but they aren't the same; or do you think they are?
Now let's pursue the question of how this agreed fact relates to the questions of how PCT relates to politico-economic theory. I asked the several questions, because it seemed clear to me that your whole approach is based on transactions freely agreed between two parties, with absolutely zero consideration of the effects on the controlled perceptions of other people not involved in the transaction. I'd hoped Rick would answer them from his standpoint, too.
What are "rights", and why are "rights" considered to be outside of the realm of discussion? Why is something a "right" in one culture not a "right" in another? Why do "rights" evolve and change over time within a culture?
I don't think I talked about "rights", only about my personal preferences -- high level references, if you like -- for the way I would like society to be organised.
Fair enough. Then I surmise that you understand "rights" in much the same way as I do.
"Rights" are either (1) what people talk about when they want to pass off their own preferences as objective truths, or (2) the powers that people in a particular society are guaranteed the use of by the institutions of that society (governmental or otherwise). Rights in sense (2) are matters of objective fact and are whatever they happen to be at any particular place and time.
Good. The possibility of "rights" (2) seems to imply some means of enforcing these rights, by acting in some way against anyone who would violate them.
Richard said:
"My belief is this:
"People should be paid whatever anyone wants to pay them. If that means that work that I personally value highly is paid a fraction of the pay of work I value less, I don't care."
Consider this situation: X is a strong guy with a known-to-be-nasty group of friends (think Cosa Nostra). X conducts a transaction with Y, by simple discussion: X "I think you should pay me $100"; Y "Why would I want to do this"; X "Because you like me, DON'T YOU?"; Y "Here's $100". That's certainly a free transaction, and both parties benefit, Y by getting $100, X by being (temporarily) assured of not having his shop trashed or himself beaten up.
This is certainly not a free transaction. X is threatening violence against Y.
Let's pursue the assertion that this is "certainly not a free transaction." I'd like you to demonstrate, using only PCT concepts, that this transaction is any less free than any other that might have been conducted between these two people.
Some points: (1) X never threatened any violence in the overt dialogue. The threat, if any, is contextual, based on the society and culture in which both X and Y live. That society and culture is a fact of life for both of them. That being so, in your view, could ANY transaction between these two be free, X always having the same set of friends?
If there could be a free thransaction between these two, how? If not, the implication is that there are societies in which Libertarianism could not take hold, beacuse there exist classes of people between whom free transactions are impossible. You may well agree that this is unfortunately so, but if you do, you must also agree that Libertarianism is a Utopian system, that could not evolve in the real world, although it might be evolutionarily stable were it ever to exist.
(2) Assuming that X is indeed perceived by Y to be threatening violence, how does this make the transaction less free? By agreeing to it, Y brings his perception for the future state of his shop and himself nearer their reference values than they would be if he rejected the transaction, and X brings his perception of the amont of money he holds nearer its reference value. These seem to me to be precisely the conditions for a free transaction; both parties bring some controlled perception nearer to its reference value than it would have been without the transaction. Or are you saying that some controlled perceptions SHOULD not enter into consideration in conducting a free transaction? If you are, on what basis are the permissible controlled perceptions to be selected?
Now Z, who sweeps floors for X, comes along and says "I've swept your floors all month, and now I'd like the $100 we agreed you would pay me". X: "I haven't got the $100, as I gave it to Y".
I think you have your X's and Y's mixed up. Did you mean that Z sweeps Y's floor, and Y can't pay because X took his money? That's the only interpretation that makes sense to me.
Yes, I got them mixed up, as you correctly divined. I would have wished you had answered the rest of the questions on that basis, but since you didn't, I'll try rephrasing some of them.
Questions (for Richard, but anyone can answer): (1) Has Z been affected by the transaction, freely entered into by X and Y?
The question is moot, because no transaction was freely entered into by X and Y.
It's still a question. The same issue would arise if the transaction X and Y had entered had been one you would have been happy to call free, so long as it gave X $100.
If Y had $100 and simply decided not to pay Z, that would be a breach of contract.
Yes, that's an appropriate label. Does it tell us anything in the language of PCT?
A fundamental precondition for people to be able to conduct free transactions is protection against force, and enforcement of contracts (more generally, protection against fraud).
So, in this case, what is it that protects Z against the effects of the transaction between X and Y? Even more simply, if Y simply chooses not to honour the contract with Z, what can Z do about it -- in other words, what constitutes "enforcement" without force or the expectation of force?
To what extent this is provided by a government is not the point. Even libertarians differ about whether and how much of a government it requires, but all are agreed on this: free transactions and enforceable contracts absolutely require societal institutions that support them.
"That support them" how? Surely "societal institutions" must do something to influence a controlled perception on the part of the fraudster or the one contemplating the use of force? In the non-libertarian world, that influence is in the form of an intent to set up a conflict: the "societal institution" has the ability to control some perception controlled by the criminal with more force than the criminal can muster. In the libertarian world, what is done instead to "support" enforceable contracts and the non-use of force?
And it is "good" to have free transactions and enforceable contracts because it relieves people of the waste of expending a major part of their resources on defending themselves against each other day to day.
Yep. That is the intent of the _enforceable_ rule of law in present society. It sounds more and more as though your preferred society is the one we (are supposed to) live in.
(2) According to your moral theory, does Z have any "right" to influence the transaction between X and Y? (3) If Y was not backed by his friends but was X's favourtie nephew, would that change your answers?
Z, and anyone else who knows about it, might very well disapprove of X. They might go so far as to involve the police in the matter. I would like (rights(1)) such transactions as between X and Y to be prevented, through some organisation of society that prevents them (rights(2)).
I'm not sure what the point is of X extorting from his favorite nephew.
I hope that wasn't a deliberate side-step away from an answer to (3). To clarify, you were correct in thinking that X and Y got switched right after they were initially introduced, and they stayed switched. Y can't pay Z because out of the goodness of his heart he gave his favourite nephew (now X) the $100 because he agreed with "Because you like me, DON'T YOU?" not from fear of reprisal. My question was whether your answers would be changed by this change in the relation of X and Y. The question stands.
Richard said:
My belief is this:
"People should be paid whatever anyone wants to pay them. If that means that work that I personally value highly is paid a fraction of the pay of work I value less, I don't care."
In the example, did X value the work of Y more highly that that of Z?
I don't understand this -- Y did no work for X in your scenario. Nor X for Y.
Precisely the point of the question. The question stands.
Could you discuss other side-effects of transactions freely entered, such as, for example, a transaction whereby X and Y agree that Y should cut all the trees on the land of X, paying X handsomely for them, thereby subjecting the land of neighbour Z to extensive erosion?
You are talking about externalities, which in this example can be handled by property rights (in sense (2)). Z owns his land; X damages it; X owes compensation to Z, and there are institutions through which Z can pursue his claim if X is recalcitrant.
Government (or private police) use of force, in other words. But remember, Y did the cutting and the damage. X agreed to it, for money. Which one should, in your view, be subject to enforcement? You say the owner of the land neighbouring the land damaged, not the person who did the damage. Why?
"Externalities" is a word. It is not the same as side-effects in the PCT sense, though the implications do overlap.
Could these questions be answered without using the concept of "rights" imposed by some higher authority or by your own systems principles? Could they be answered by reference to what would be likely to happen in an environment of control systems interacting through a common environment rather than only with each other in isolated dyads acting in an abstract infinitely resourced environment?
That is a very strange paragraph, in which you're trying not to say whatever it is you're saying. I mean, where do you get this nonsense about isolated dyads and infinite resources?
From your talk about free transactions freely agreed between the partners in the transaction. In nothing that I read did you mention the interactions with others affected by the transaction. Nor did you indicate that the possibility had occurred to you that the transaction might involve depriving someone else of resources they might have otherwise been able to use.
Actually, the question is independent of whether in the back of your mind you were actually thinking of a regulated society in which the side-effects on others are taken into account in enforceable laws that regulate permissible transactions. The question is whether it is _possible_ to treat what would happen in a system of interacting control systems, without invoking any concept of "rights".
Economics, practically by definition, is about limited resources, and markets with only two participants are a tiny sliver of the interactions that are studied.
Agreed, but I thought you were discussing libertarian principles and PCT, not classical economic theory or even "Economics" more generally.
Richard and Rick have been kind enough to share their beliefs. Here's mine:
0: One can consider a continuum from "good" to "bad", which is a perception in the observer. In what follows, unless otherwise stated I am the observer.
1. If any action or event either increases the ablity of some control system to control its perception or brings that perception closer to its reference value, without affecting the ability of any other control system to control its perception, that's "good". (The action or event in question may or may not be part of the output of the control system whose perception is under consideration).
Sounds like a PCT version of Pareto optimality. "If any action or event increases a person's utility, without affecting the utility of anyone else, that's "good"."
4. My personal "good-bad" judgment says that no one person is privileged over any other, so if some action or event improves the ability of a small number of people to control while equally reducing the ability of a large number of people to control, that's bad.
How do you measure "ability to control"? Your axioms (1) and (2) don't apply to this case, where there is a conflict or trade-off.
That's why it's a separate statement.
As for how one measures "ability to control", that's an issue that has long bothered me. It's not clear at all. But I am leaning toward the idea that it's only at the top level (control of systems perceptions, in Bill's hypothetical hierarchy) that the measurement should be made.
Why is it a difficult issue? Partly because of the importance of "tolerance" in both the colloquial and the engineering sense. Tolerance means that you can't simply use as a measure the deviation of the perception from its reference value. Tolerance means that sufficiently small deviations are functionally equivalent to zero error. Tolerance allows systems to control in circumstances that would otherwise lead to conflict.
Economists have an answer to how you measure utility.
PCT would say that it's based on conflict. One thing has more utility than another if it is preferred when you can have either one or the other, but not both. I don't know whether most economists treat utility as a time-varying function, though. Maybe you do.
What measure of "amount of control" can you derive from PCT?
You don't "derive" it from PCT. PCT recognizes that control is what is going on. Any measure must be based on observables (which might be self-reported).
It's quite possible that in the development of PCT science we might some day find that a reasonable proxy measure is something as simple as "happiness", and that the US principles of "life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness" are PCT-correct, whereas the Canadian principles of "peace, order, and good government" are simply enablers for the US set.
5. [Back to quasi-technical argument] The change in ability to control from the addition or subtraction of one dollar to the available capital is greater, the fewer dollars one has. Hence, transferring one dollar from a rich person to a poor person would be "good" if it were an isolated event. Whether in any specific case it would be "good" depends on the side effects of the transaction.
This is politics by imagination. The dollar will not be transferred unless someone has the power to take the dollar from the rich person and give it to the poor one.
Yep. But it's not imagination, really. There may be occasions on which one dollar makes a big difference to the ability of a rich person to control some perception, but they are likely to be few compared to the times this is true for a poor person. So, using the quasi-axioms I presented as my own moral beliefs, transferring the dollar from the rich person to the poor one is more often likely to be "good" than "bad".
The libertarian point, expressed in your terms, is that the very existence of people and institutions with that power itself constitutes a great danger of a large loss of control for all of the people subject to it, both rich and poor.
Now THAT is politics by imagination! If you can effectively answer the questions you omitted to answer, which I restated above, without entering into self-contradiction, you may have made a start. But at present, it's a simple assertion that I think has very little chance of being demonstrable.
Richard:
Right, it means taking money from the rich and giving it to government contractors.
And employees, and improving the abilities of both rich and poor to control, not to mention enhancing the abilities of those contractors and employees to control their perceptions.
That's the first time I've seen corporate welfare schemes praised for being just that.
I see. To employ someone to produce something is "corporate welfare". Interesting use of language!
Whether this is "good" or "bad" depends on your personal sense of ethics and morality. In mine, as stated above, it's "good".
Is that still true when the contractor is Halliburton and the work is in Iraq?
Relevance?
If we are to have a "clean" discussion of the reasonableness or self-consistency of the Libertarian concept based on the principles of PCT, then the use of emotionally charged language is not helpful. (I would prefer a discussion of the evolutionary stability of the Libertarian society, but that's probably too much to ask).
Remember, in PCT terms, "force" is essentially physical. The threat of force is different. It involves placing someone in a conflict situation by making it likely that some controlled perception will increase its error (e.g. not feeling hurt) unless some other perception increases its error instead (giving money to the extortionist means having less when you wnat more, but not being hurt). People may have multiple ways of getting out of a conflict situation (think MOL), but they have no way of getting out of a situation in which they are subject to force (other than by persuading the source of the force to stop applying it -- possible when that source is human, not when it's something like a mountain landslide).
So, you are quite correct in saying that "the very existence of people and institutions with that power itself constitutes a great danger of a large loss of control for all of the people subject to it, both rich and poor", but only when you apply it to specific individual transactions. It is also true that excessive use of institutional power can lead more generally to loss of control for most (not all -- there are those who wield the levers of power) (witness the Nazis or Soviet Russia).
But just as one can die from eating excessive salt and also from eating no salt, so I believe a society would be likely to die from both excessive government regulation and from insufficient government regulation. I mean "die" in the sense that in either case, most would have little ability to control much of anything, whereas a very few would have the ability to control a great deal.
Now that last paragraph IS politics by imagination.
Martin