[From Bill Powers (920524.0900)]
Greg Williams (920523) --
It [how the universe got to the way it is] matters to the folks who
have pitched the idea of what I've been referring to as "traditional"
free will (which is where this thread started). They claim that an
individual has a "transcendental self" (their term) which can make
"free deliberate choices," where "free" means completely independent of
anything besides the "self" and "deliberate" means "not-random."
When "these folks" (?) claim that free deliberate choices are completely
independent of anything besides the self, do they include independence from
the choices that are available to be made? That is, if you're presented
with the choice of eating a dish of Jello and eating a dish of spaghetti,
are you free to choose to eat a cheese sandwich, even if there isn't one?
The very concept of "a choice" (however it's made) seems to imply some
extant alternatives among which to choose -- in other words, a world apart
from the chooser over which the chooser does not have total control, which
the chooser did not choose to exist. If you have total control over the
universe, no choices need be made.
Second difficulty: how would anyone show that a "deliberate" act was "non-
random?" As you present the idea, this would be impossible to demonstrate.
If an act is "non-random," then it seems that it must be related in some
systematic way to surrounding conditions. In other words, the proof of non-
randomness is to describe the algorithm or rule or influence that generated
the choice. If "deliberate" means "non-random," it means acting for a
reason: to achieve a goal, or in obedience to a describable rule. But then
the goal or the rule determined the choice, and it was not free. The same
procedure that shows that a choice was non-random shows that it was not
free (I will show later that there's a flaw in this argument).
If you're fairly describing the best thought of those who support the
concept of free will, it's hard to understand how "they" could have ignored
such elementary difficulties. If, on the other hand, you're picking the
lowest common denominator to represent that point of view, it isn't hard at
all, nor are you presenting the view fairly. Why should we bother with
analyzing the least competent way of presenting a viewpoint? The only
interesting challenge would be the one presented by the most thorough and
competent thinkers who speak of free will.
We have to avoid falling into the same tactics that were used in denying
purposiveness. One of the arguments against purposiveness was that the
future can't affect the present. This was a very insulting argument,
because it assumed that those who accepted purposiveness were so stupid
that they had overlooked this elementary problem. Instead of using that
counterargument, the opponents of purposiveness should have thought "I'm
talking with a person who is as intelligent as I am, so whatever that
person means by purposiveness, he or she wouldn't mean to say that the
future affects the present. What, then, might be a meaning that wouldn't
entail this silly assertion?"
Even if a particular proponent doesn't see problems with the idea of
purpose, the challenge is still to discover how that idea MIGHT be defended
by someone who IS competent. Until you can say that even when you give it
your best effort you can't find a defense, you have no basis for rejecting
the idea. You're just defending your own idea, the same as the other
person.
So, what could "these folks" be referring to in speaking of free will that
might have some validity to it? I don't mean the stupidest of them; I mean
the smartest of them, those over whom we do not have any intellectual edge.
There is one way to reconcile a "deliberate" act with a "non-random" act,
and still leave the act free. Behind the concept of randomness is the
assumption that there is no orderliness in a random event. But given a
change in a variable that does not seem related to anything else, it is
still possible that we simply don't recognize the order that is there. A
"deliberate" choice for a change in that variable, a choice that is still
not systematically related to any prior conditions, would have, as far as
anyone can tell, the character of a random choice. Even if there is order
behind the choice, if that orderliness is not of the kind that is a
recognizeable relationship to prior events it would be indistinguishable
from a random choice.
At this point one has to be cautious lest we make the same logical error
made by the opponents of purposiveness. Those opponents used their premise
to support the conclusion. The premise was that ALL OUTCOMES ARE CAUSED BY
EXTERNAL EVENTS. The reasoning went something like this.
A series of actions leads through time to a future outcome. The only way
those actions could come about would be as a result of some external event.
To say that an action is caused by a purpose is to say that its intended
outcome caused the action. Therefore the intended outcome is to the action
as a cause is to its effect. But in this case, the cause occurs after the
effect, which is impossible.
The error is to assume that purpose works as cause and effect work. The
correct solution is to see that a purpose is not a prior cause, but a
blueprint defining, in present time, a state of affairs that is to be
brought about. The action is based not on the end-point, but on the present
difference between the blueprint and the actual state of affairs. Action
continues until the difference disappears.
If the opponents of purposiveness had thought this way, they would have
invented control theory, thus showing the proponents that they were right
even if the proponents at hand had no idea of how to defend their own
belief. But of course if they had thought that way, the "opponents" of
purposiveness wouldn't have been opponents in the first place; they would
simply have taken the concept under advisement, given it their best effort,
and discovered that it was in fact defensible. No adversary procedure would
have been necessary.
On other other hand, if the opponents had given it their best effort and
failed, they would then have had some basis for claiming that the concept
of purpose was flawed -- or at least not tenable for the present. They
would then have had every justification for opposing the proponents.
Now we have a similar situation. I have proposed that there can be a basis
for choice that is not dependent on prior events, a basis that can't be
expressed as a cause-effect chain or an algoritm or a rule. A choice made
on that basis would be indistinguishable from a random choice. One
possible, but erroneous, counterargument would be to say that if a choice
has any basis, that basis must have been some external influence. That is
the very question we are investigating: are there choices that are made
without any external influence? So the counterargument uses the desired
(negative) answer to prove itself.
There is another error to avoid, also made by the opponents of
purposiveness. Another kind of counterargument was to describe instances in
which the acts intended to create a certain outcome failed to do so,
because of unpredictable large disturbances occurring after the act but
before the outcome. In the same vein, opponents of purpose cited such
things as the eyeblink reflex to prove that blinking the eye occurred
whether one felt an intention to blink or not. These instances were taken
as counterexamples that disproved the existence of purpose.
But purpose does not have to apply to every single act in order to exist.
If a cosmic ray hits a motor nerve, the muscles may cause a limb to twitch
and knock a glass of water to the floor. This is certainly not a purposive
outcome. But under other circumstances it might have been. The existence of
purpose is not disproven by demonstrating instances of nonpurposive
outcomes.
In the same way, the existence of free will is not disproven by
demonstrating instances of rule-based or automatic behavior presumably
generated by automatic machinery. To say that free will exists and has
effects is not to say that nothing else exists and has effects in the same
organism.
I have proposed the possible locus of free will to be the process of
reorganization. I would rule out reason, thought, emotion, principles, and
system concepts as evidence of free will, because we can understand such
things as being the product of learned computations in a physical brain
obedient to physical properties of matter. I would also rule out as free
will any truly random processes in the reorganizing system, because there
can be automatically disorderly (or at least chaotic) processes at work as
well, as in E. coli. But I can't rule out the possibility that there is an
uncaused but orderly influence at work during the process of reorganization
that can say, for no reason whatsoever, "Let's try it this way." Nor can I
rule out the possibility that this kind of orderly influence accounts for
ALL of the apparently random process of reorganization. It is impossible to
distinguish an uncaused but orderly process from a truly random one, as
long as we know of no ordering scheme that will account for the apparent
randomness.
Quite likely, my conclusion about free will would not satisfy many of those
who already believe in it. I don't particularly care about that. True
Believers don't listen to reasoned arguments anyway, nor are they
interested in risking any real investigation of belief that might turn out
"wrong." If one already knows the answer, why go looking for it again?
A lot of arguments like these result from the way people use words without
really examining what they mean. Consider the word "deliberate" in
"deliberate choice." The derivation of this word implies deliberation --
that is, rational consideration of alternatives and the arrival at a
logical conclusion. That would certainly NOT be a characteristic of free
will, because then circumstances and logic predetermine the outcome. But
what most people mean by "deliberate" is "on purpose," which entails
nothing more than that sense of willed urging that something shall come to
pass. As few people have understood purpose, it's not surprising that they
are rather inarticulate when it comes to talking about purpose. But this
doesn't mean that they're just tossing empty words around. They're trying
to describe an experience without the vocabulary or system concept needed
to give order to the description.
We'll get furthest by trying to understand and articulate those
indescribable experiences rather than by rejecting the way people try to
talk about them.
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Best,
Bill P.