PCT vs Economics?

[From Bill Williams 29 January 2004 1:35 PM CST]

[From Bill Powers (2004.01.29.1040 MST)]

Rick Marken (2004.01.29.0850)--

I know this is very disturbing to you Kenny but please try to avoid sneaky
personal attacks.

That doesn't work, Rick.

# I could lend you a spare muzzle if you promise to return it someday when
# Rick has learned that this "doesn't work."

Another way to put that is to say that when businesses grow in response to
increased demand,

# Yes, this would be "Another way to put" it. But, there is good reason to think that this is not, for the greater part, what happens. While you are
developing this marvolous habit of going to the library check out Galbraith's stuff on how the corporate world really does work. The one liner summary is that Corporations "develop" markets rather than merely responding to demand. They invented a nasty trick called advertising. My fellow imps will probably crucify me if they learned that I have revealed this secret.

Bill Williams

[From Bill Williams 29 January 2004 2:35 PM CST]

[From Rick Marken (2004.01.29.1130)]

Billy Dean (29 January 2004 12:30 PM CST) --

In my post last night I mentioned that the correlation between the
proportion of GNP invested in capital goods [(Ig + Ip)/GNP] and growth rate
(dGNP/dt) during the period from 1951-1998 is -.03. The lagged correlation
between current investment with growth rate 2 years in the future is -.1. Is
this what you expected to see? Why is there no relationship between
investment and growth during this period?

To find out the first thing that is needed is references to the Feds
flow of funds data. I've asked several people what does the symbol
"Ig" you are using represent. When you don't provide a reference for
where you are obtaining this "Ig" I can't really begin to see what
is going on. Much of the time trying to understand what you and Bill
Powers are talking about in regard to economics is like listening to
a foreign language. For instance, when Bill Powers says "investment,"
what he, at least some of the time means is "speculation."

While we are waiting for you to provide references to the data that
you are using there are a couple of considerations that ought to be
taken into consideration.

In a discussion taken from Peterson 1992 Income etc etc page 51.
there is an explaination of a difference between private and public
investment. Private investment is intended for use in generating
output that is sold on the market. This investment is undertaken
to generate income producing activity in a monetary sense. That is
the private investment is tied to GNP in at least the minds of the
investors. While you are crunching numbers why don't you run
business investment (net) against GNP. Let see if what you are
doing generates an expected result for Ip.

However, government investement as Peterson explains is intended
for collective purposes (by definition really). So, the income
generated my collective investment does not ordinarily become
part of a monetary flow of benefits. So, I am puzzled as to why
you would expect government investement to have even a potential
association with GNP reports in the sense that government investment
wouldn't be expected to generate a flow of income-- not in the
private sense of income, collective yes. But read Peterson's
explaination of why this isn't a part of the reports for GNP.

It may have slipped Peterson's mind, and may have it entirely wrong
and left it out but but the symbol you use Ig doesn't appear in
Wally's table of symbols for the GNP accounting.

Now we really are staring to ahve fun.

Bill Williams

[From Bill Williams 29 Feburary 2004 4:45 PM CST]

Rick Marken (2004.01.29.0850)] said,

I think the mistake made by conventional economists is to assume that the macro economy works like > the individual components of that economy, like businesses and households.

Since Bill Powers is a gutless wonder, he talks about risk, but when it comes to backing up his ignorant blithering, he is chicken. So, how about you. Do you talk a big line, but have no guts. Or do you really belive in the uter crap you keep spewing?

1) Let's make it even money, I wouldn't want to take advange of the biggest idiot I've ever encountered--not just because he is an idiot.

2) Let's have a little side bet. I know lots of people who would love to have a part of you. So, lets make it a contest as to which one of us can raise the most money. Since it is such a sure thing I will get on the econ net lists and money will flood in.

So, are you game? Is what you said actually true? Do you have the guts and foolhardiness to back up what you say?

Bill Williams

[From Rick Marken (2004.01.29.1800)]

[From Bill Williams 29 January 2004 1:35 PM CST]
[From Bill Williams 29 January 2004 2:35 PM CST]
[From Bill Williams 29 Feburary 2004 4:45 PM CST]

Your machine is still broken, Bill.

RSM

···

---
Richard S. Marken
marken@mindreadings.com
Home 310 474-0313
Cell 310 729-1400

[From Bill Williams 29 January 2004 8:15 PM CST]

[From Rick Marken (2004.01.29.1800)]

        [From Bill Williams 29 January 2004 1:35 PM CST]
        [From Bill Williams 29 January 2004 2:35 PM CST]
        [From Bill Williams 29 Feburary 2004 4:45 PM CST]

Your machine is still broken, Bill

Shoud I remail my postings. I'll borrow another machine.

Bill Williams

[From Rick Marken (2004.01.29.1840)]

[From Bill Williams 29 January 2004 8:15 PM CST]

[From Rick Marken (2004.01.29.1800)]

        [From Bill Williams 29 January 2004 1:35 PM CST]
        [From Bill Williams 29 January 2004 2:35 PM CST]
        [From Bill Williams 29 Feburary 2004 4:45 PM CST]

Your machine is still broken, Bill

Shoud I remail my postings. I'll borrow another machine.

No. I got them. They were just a little hard to read.

RSM

···

---
Richard S. Marken
marken@mindreadings.com
Home 310 474-0313
Cell 310 729-1400

[From Kenny Kitzke (2004.01.29.2050)]

<Rick Marken (2004.01.29.0850)>

<I know this is very disturbing to you Kenny but please try to avoid sneaky personal attacks. Notice how I have not resorted to warning you that you may be making yourself out to be a stupid idiot. I appreciate your concern about not wanting me to appear foolish. But, believe me, I don’t want you to look like a stupid idiot either. Yet I refrain from warning you about it because I know that it might look like I am saying that you are a stupid idiot. And I know that that would hurt your feelings. So I don’t do it. “Do unto others�, as we secular humanists say. I suggest that if I say things that make me look foolish to you, it would be best if you just correct me. If I don’t correctly understand what conventional economists claim, for example, then I think the best way to handle it is to simply explain what they claim.>

It won’t work, Rick. I won’t take the bait. Your juvenile antics just flow off me like water off a duck’s back. I won’t curse, won’t call you names, won’t impune motives, and I will not leave the forum so you can “win” like you usually do when driving people with “agendas” that do not coincide with your “agenda” away for CSGNet.

Course, you don’t have to take my word for the apriori futility of your “techniques” for dealing with my critique and honest questions. Even the Master PCTer knows your techniques won’t work and said so. He handled my critique of his Test Bed like a man. Will you ever learn or just act like a crybaby?

I didn’t make a universal claim. I didn’t make any claim.

Is it robbery to call beliefs you express without documentation like the following a claim?

I believe that the conventional economic view is that investment drives
economic growth. But the data over the last 50 years says that this is
not the case. Perhaps things were different in the 25 years before 1951.

Can you cite one conventional economist who states that “total investment,” comprised of all government and private investment, drives economic growth? I have never seen one. I suspect they are referring to private capital investment by businesses. And, I do suspect they are right. You are comparing apples and oranges and your belief about your data showing they are wrong is moot if not deceptive.

I simply said that the data from 1951 to 1998 shows no relationship between capital investment and GDP growth.

The data you use is acknowledged to be incomplete. The incomplete data you used shows no relationship. But, if it is about 70 degrees in Pittsburgh in April in most years, it does not mean it will not snow next April like it did in April in say 1970. So, you have not shown that the conventional wisdom claim is wrong by your observation. Might be worth looking into though.

This applies at the macro level of the economy. I am well aware of the fact that at the level of individual businesses this is almost certainly not the case. Businesses grow through capital investment. I think the mistake made by conventional economists is to assume that the macro economy works like the individual components of that economy, like businesses and households.

Another claim you make about conventional economists is that they make a mistake by assuming the macro economy works like individual businesses and households. If anyone is making that mistake it is you and your toy model or the assumptions in Bill P’s test bed.

I am no conventional economist, but I would suspect that it is the private sector investment that most drives the economy. And, the governement investment slows it down. But, that is why I asked you to run the data so we can explore with the real system (not a toy model) who is fooled and who is fooling who.

Sure. I’ll do that tonight when I get home (I’m afraid the data is only on my home computer). But I don’t see the point.

Good, perhaps you will when you consider the data more carefully.

Those correlations are almost guaranteed to be close to 0 since lg and lp continuously increase as the economy increases while growth rate doesn’t consistently increase but varies around 0. It will be like correlating a diagonal line with a horizontal line. I think it is necessary to scale capital investment in terms of GNP to get a meaningful measure of the size of capital investment each year.

Where did you get that idea? I doubt it. Show me the money, especially for the atypical years where government policy interferes with the free market, as during a war [or under the reign of a demonic democratic administration; letting my own childishness show just to give you some of your own medicine.]

OK. So you want me to correlate raw Ig and raw Ip with growth rate? Will do. Could you tell me what you think I’ll find and what we will learn about economics from it?

I am not making any claim or offering any guesses about economis. I am not writing PCT programs which claim to be indicative of how the real economy works. Or, how the conventional expert economists are wrong and you are right. You are.

And, if you want to do that fine. All I want to know is how you did it to be able to benefit from your labors. But, if you don’t know what you are modeling, or use suspect data, or defined variables improperly, then you make PCT look silly and foolish.

The burden is on you who want to get on the soap box to back up your claims if you want to be perceived as a contributor to economic theory based on PCT concepts of closed loops and aggregate human agency.

Lofty goals. I wish you well. I hope you are up to the task. But, so far, I have not seen any convincing evidence. I’m all ears and waiting for your answers to my questions.

I have no horse in the race. I don’t care whether you or the conventional economists turn out to be the fools and are making giant leaps in the wrong (false) direction. I would just like to know the truth.

[From Bill Williams 29 January 2004 9:40 PM CST]

Kenny asked ( the night of the 29th ),

#Can you cite one conventional economist who states that "total investment,"
#comprised of all government and private investment, drives economic growth? #I have never seen one.

I would like to see where the "Ig" concept comes from. It does not
appear in Peterson. I can remember a discussion in an undergraduate class 35 years ago concerning a theoretical division of government expenditure into consumption and investment, but I also remember the conclusion that it would be excessively difficult to compile the income accounts this way. The conclusion that I drew at the time was the accounts had never been kept in which government expenditure was reported as 1) consumption and 2) investment.
So, I am puzzled by where in the national income accounting this figure "Ig" originates. Now one around the office had ever heard of it.

#I suspect they are referring to private capital
#investment by businesses.

And, implicitly they mean by "private capital investment" _net_ investment.
Gross -minus net investment is better thought of in terms of the consumption of production assets.

# And, I do suspect they are right.

I would have some qualifications, but for the most part I would agree. If
private net investment doesn't increase potential income what is it for?
If this in fact turns out to be true, it would be like overturning the 2nd law.

#You are comparing apples
#and oranges and your belief about your data showing they are wrong is moot if
#not deceptive.

I would still argue that data don't show, people draw conclusions that may and often are mistaken.

#I simply said that the data from 1951 to 1998 shows no relationship between
#capital investment and GDP growth.

I suspect that few people would be able to tell what you mean by "capital
investment." The would be surprized by what is included, Ig, and you might be using gross investment for Ip. Net verus Gross would make a difference.

#The data you use is acknowledged to be incomplete.

I don't see any inherent problem with incomplete data, as long as the incompleteness is fully disclosed. However, I would think that if
WWII and the great Depression were not part of the data, this ommision should be treated with candor and a rather extensive discussion.

# So, you have not shown that the conventional wisdom claim
# is wrong by your observation.

I am not sure who Rick is talking about under the caption "conventional
economist." He's called me that in the past, and most people would
be extremely surprized to learn that I'm a "conventional economist."
The way Rick uses the caption Its a humpty-dumpty defintion.

## I think the mistake made by
## conventional economists is to assume that the macro economy works like the
## individual components of that economy, like businesses and households.

Again who is a conventional economist. Me for instance. Keynes? Galbraith?

Kenny wrote,
# Another claim you make about conventional economists is that they make a
# mistake by assuming the macro economy works like individual businesses and
# the assumptions in Bill P's test bed.

I think perhaps a distinction ought to be made between how Bill Powers talks, and how the model is actually being constructed. I would be surprized, surprized, if the model matches the way he talks.

# I am no conventional economist, but I would suspect that it is the private
# sector investment that most drives the economy. And, the governement # investment slows it down.

# But, that is why I asked you to run the data so we can
# explore with the real system (not a toy model) who is fooled and who is # fooling who.

## Sure. I'll do that tonight when I get home (I'm afraid the data is only on
## my home computer). But I don't see the point.

# Good, perhaps you will when you consider the data more carefully.

Kenny wrote,
# if you don't know what you are
# modeling, or use suspect data, or defined variables improperly, then you # # make PCT look silly and foolish.

He also wrote,
# I have no horse in the race. I don't care whether you or the conventional
# economists turn out to be the fools and are making giant leaps in the wrong
# (false) direction. I would just like to know the truth.

Well, If Rick doesn't want to play at least Bill Powers now seems to have
gotten his feet wet in the muck of ecomic data.

Bill Williams

[From Rick Marken (2004.01.29.2150)]

Kenny Kitzke (2004.01.29.2050)

Rick Marken (2004.01.29.0850)

I know this is very disturbing to you Kenny but please try to avoid sneaky personal attacks. Notice how I have not resorted to warning you that you may be making yourself out to be a stupid idiot. ...

It won't work, Rick. I won't take the bait.

I was not baiting, Kenny. I was showing, by example, how to insult the way you do. You forgot to quote what you said to me, to which my comment was a reply. You said "Or, perhaps you fail to understand what the conventional economists claim, making yourself out to be a fool?" I believe Bill Powers told me "it won't work" because he knows as well as I do that you can't stop ugly behavior with ugly behavior. But I'm afraid I'm human and after a few days of being called name after name, I guess I lost it. So I apologize for my remarks. And I accept your apology for yours without you even having to make it. So now we can be friends again, OK.

Is it robbery to call beliefs you express without documentation like the following a claim?

I believe that the conventional economic view is that investment drives
economic growth. But the data over the last 50 years says that this is
not the case. Perhaps things were different in the 25 years before 1951.

Actually, I did document the claim in my previous post. The data I presented in that post came from the Statistical Abstract of the United States, Section 13, Income, Expenditures and Wealth (I got the year 2001 edition off the net). The data on investment come from table No. 650, Gross Savings and Investment. Ip is the entry for "Gross private domestic investment". lg is the entry for "Gross government investment". Ip+Ig is called "Gross investment" in the table.

The data on GDP for 1951-1998 now comes from the most recent update of the GDP data from the U.S. Department of Commerce: Bureau of Economic Analysis.

I have now done the analyses on the data that you and Bill suggested (I've also added data for 1999 and 2000 so these results are based on data from the years 1951-2000).

I computed the average values for Ip, Ig and Ig+Ip as you requested, Kenny. These averages are .15, .05 and .20 for Ip, Ig and Ig+Ip, respectively. The standard deviations around these three averages are .02, .01 and .01, respectively.

The correlations between absolute Ip, Ig and Ip+Ig and growth rate (dGDP/dt) are .27, .22 and .25 respectively. So we do get a positive correlation between the absolute level of lp (private investment) and growth. Same for the absolute level of government investment and total investment (Ip+Ig). But this positive correlation is an artifact that results from the fact that both growth rate and investment increased over time. The correlation between Ip and time (in years) is .94. The correlation between growth rate and time (in years) is .23. When time is partialed out as a covariate from the relationship between Ip and growth rate, the correlation between Ip and growth rate is .16, which is statistically insignificant.

This analysis just shows that it is not appropriate to use the absolute values of Ip or Ig as predictors of growth because these variables increase with time as a side effect of the growth of the economy. The correlation between Ip (measured as a proportion of GDP, lp/GDP) and growth rate is -.16, which is negative, as is the relationship between (Ip+Ig)/GDP and GDP (which comes out to be a whopping -.24 when I use the latest GDP data available from the Department of Commerce).

I also looked at the relationship between Ip/GDP and time (in years) and ran partial correlations which factored time out of the relationship between p/GDP and growthrate. The partial correlation between Ip/GDP and growth rate actually becomes _more_ negative when time is partialed out. This happens because there is actually a moderately strong positive correlation (.55) between Ip and time. What this means is that the private investment component of GDP (Ip) has been growing over the last 50 years of the 20th century. This is not necessarily because the aggregate producer has become more entrepreneurial. It may be because the government investment component of GDP (Ig/GDP) has been decreasing substantially over the last 50 years. The correlation between Ig/GDP and time is an astonishing -.93.

The decline in government investment and the increase in private investment shows up as a good sized negative relationship (-.54) between Ig/GDP and Ip/GDP. This was the relationship Bill Powers wanted to see, thinking their might be a negative relationship between government and private investment. Such a negative relationship could indicate an inclination on the part of government to make up for increases or decreases in private investment. Though the negative relationship between lg/GDP and Ip/GDP does exist (nice call Bill P.), it may not result from active controlling by the government. Overall investment (as a proportion of GDP) has been declining over time (the correlation between (Ip+Ig)/GDP and time is -.21) and lagging the correlation between Ig/GDP and Ip/GDP in either direction makes it _less_ negative, so government isn't following the investment lead of private industry and vice versa.

I'm happy to make the raw data available to anyone who is interested.

Best regards

Rick

···

--
Richard S. Marken
marken@mindreadings.com
Home 310 474-0313
Cell 310 729-1400

[Bill Williams 30 January 2004 6:42 AM CST]

Rick,

Do you know the difference between the measure of investment that is a contribution to total capital, and the measure of investment that is is inclusive of user costs? Whether or not you know the difference, you've used the wrong measures.

What you want is the measure of investment such that:

   where I : net investment, and K : capital.

   I = dK/dt

Doing it your way could generate a situation such that:

  In : net investment;

  In < 0, but I > 0

This possiblity has the potentiality for obscuring what is going on.

Keynes explains this in his section on "sinking funds" and elsewhere in the General Theory.

It would be help matters along if you would consult a manual on the national accounting principles which would explain the meaning of the terms involved.

And, while you are obtaining the net data, why not extend the analysis to the interwar period, the Great Depression and WWII.

If Bill's dad had an opinion that his ratio didn't extend to the years of the Great Depression and World War II, and this is in fact the case, then TCP's ratio is most explanatory when it isn't needed as explaination of what's called the business cycle, and not explainator at all when some sort of causal explaination is most needed.

Rick says

# So we do get a positive correlation between the absolute level of lp # (private investment) and growth.

You've confirmed What I was suggesting so many years to Bill's dad-- that ordinarily it is thought that there is a positive relationship between investment and economic growth. I gather that even though you are using the wrong data, even gross investment is coorelated with growth. Since gross investment includes user costs, the assocation between net investment and growth must of mathematical neccesary be higher, perhapts much higher when the distortion of user costs are removed. It is ordinarily assumed that dK/dt is proportionate to DY/dt. Who would have thought otherwise?

And, as I pointed out yesterday there is no reason to assume that net collective investment is going to generate growth in national income as measured by the GNP. Because as I explained, (see Peterson ) collective
investment doesn't generate a change in output that would show up as sales.
If, discounting for government's supposed inefficiency, just to keep Kenny happy, there will be an implicit, non-market, and hense non-market measurable, contribution to income by additions to government capital. Since this flow of income isn't captured by GNP your use of a gross measure doesn't matter, but conceptually you ought to use government investment as reported in net terms-- if such a measure is made.

I ought to talk to Wally about giving a more extensive treatment to some of the issues that have come up as a result of the controversy as to whether investment is associated with economic growth. His macro txt does include a brief discussion on the under-consumptionists, of which Bill's dad's thinking was derived. But, the discussion may be somewhat misleading because it assumes that underconsumptionist doctrine was absorbed into Keynesian theory, which is not entirely the case.

I congratulate you on confirming what has been routinely understood since Adam Smith. Economic growth is associated with net investment. You've generated a "proof" that economic growth is associated with gross investment. This isn't neccesarily the case, but it is among the things that while of no use, may be nice to know.

What you've done couldn't have been done so easily two decades ago, but it should have been done-- before Bill's dad made the claims he did. After about 20 minutes I came to the conclusion that it wasn't worth pursuing.

My participation, even if a very minor role in this controversy, brought back a puzzle I experienced as an undergraduate taking an econometric course. The professor claim that his data supported or proved that the cobb-douglass production function was real. His work was based on the South Korean economy, and the numbers he generated were astonishinly good. However, when I went through the work carefully, I found that their was a coorelation between the size of the firms involved and how closely the firms data conformed to the cobb-douglas production function. Eventually I came to the conclusion that the larger the firm the better educated and sophisticated were the accountants. And, the more sophisticated the accountants, the more likely they were to adjust their techniques so as to conform to the cobb-douglas conception. I suspect something quite similiar is going on here. The value for user cost, that is gross investment - net investment is almost, if not, entirely impossible to calculate. Since capital expenses ( not net investment ) are in large measure subjective, they are easily influenced by the dominant forces in society-- and the numbers reported can be expected to conform to the equilibrium of power structures in a society. If my conjecture is correct then income distribution is largely determined by political factors-- including in political the power structures of the corporate worlds. The cost accounting in this world has the function of allocating proceeds between labor and capital. If the power structure of a society is realatively stable then the distribution of income in the society can be expected to realatively stable. Is this a profound truth? In a way I suppose it is. Is this understanding new. No.

Almost a year ago, I posted this extract from Clarence Ayres' (1946) _The Divine Right of Capital_" to the CSGnet discussion list. Ayres' is making a point about the concept of capital. But the point he is making is applicable to the entire "capitalist" market society. The duality of money and capital is repeated with variations when we attempt to think about every aspect, and every element of the marketplace relationships in a society.

   "Even in early modern times industry was growing fast.
That growth was a function of industrial equipment of
the community, as anybody could see even in early times.
To identify that function with the accumulation of money
was to attribute the whole thing to the men who made money.
That is what we accomplish by calling both things 'capital.'
The argument runs as follows: Economic progress results
from the growth of the material equipment of industry, that
is to say, capital, that is to say money, is created by
'saving': therefore, econmic progress is made possible by
'saving.' In this fashion the money power became functional.
   This is the idea which was forming in the minds of the
merchants and their spokesmen during the sixteenth century.
The word 'capital' first begins to appear in economic
writtings just about the middle of that century. By the time
of Locke it was a commonplace. By the time of Adam Smith it
was a 'law of nature.' In our time it is so familiar that we
are shocked to discover that every time we use the word 'capital'
we are indulging in double-talk.
   The double-talk of capital has become an engrained habit.
It runs through virtually every textbook. Textbook writers
solemnly warn their students of the dangers of confusion
which lurk behind this word. Resolutely they insist that it
must be used to refer to one thing or the other, and not both.
With exemplary clarity they declare, for example, that they
propose to use it to refer only to the physical equipment of
industry: plant, manchines, raw materials, and so forth. And
in the very next paragraph we find them saying that capital
is brought into existence by saving! But now, obviously
they are talking about money!
  That is how it is done." p. 10-11 ?? check page #

So, now that Rick has refuted TCP thesis that investment does not
contribute to growth, (see below) at least for the last 50 years
where do we go from here?

Should we take up Rick's conjecture that economists don't understand
that there is an aggregate side to the economic process?

Bill Williams

# So we do get a positive correlation between the absolute level of lp # (private investment) and growth.

[From Bill Williams 30 January 2004 9:43 AM CST]

[From Bill Powers (2004.01.29.0644 MST)]

# Too bad we don't know any economists who are interested in finding out the # truth about all this, though there must be some, somewhere.

1) You have to understand that, the only ones who get through the programs are those unsympathetic souls(?) who find there only meaning in life in "pouncing" on the poor ignorant citizenry.

# Someone who understands all the different names by which "investment" can be # called would be a great help. Perhaps among the economists at RAND there # might be someone.

Surely? Go back and read # 1.

# I didn't intend to get into this so far, so maybe Bill Williams has done us
# a service by goading us into it (he can always claim that this was his real
# intention all along).

Would I do something as mean spirited as goading? Teasing definitely. Goosing, well every once and a while. Goading, I don't think so.

# It is looking more and more as though TCP discovered a pretty startling fact # about investment, unknown even to economists who put "PhD" on their lapels # in tasteless flashing lights.

And, I can even play the piano pretty well.

Bill Williams

[From Bill Powers (2004.01.30.0746 MST)]

Rick Marken (2004.01.29.2150) --

I told you it wouldn't work. It doesn't work for me, either.

Actually, I did document the claim in my previous post. The data I
presented in that post came from the Statistical Abstract of the United
States, Section 13, Income, Expenditures and Wealth (I got the year 2001
edition off the net). The data on investment come from table No. 650,
Gross Savings and Investment. Ip is the entry for "Gross private domestic
investment". lg is the entry for "Gross government investment". Ip+Ig is
called "Gross investment" in the table.

Those tables have been very hard (impossible) to find in early editions of
the Statistical Abstracts. I can't get into the Federal Reserve data base
because it costs $175 per year to subscribe (!). I am very glad you were
able to find something called Gross Government Investment (the variable TCP
referred to as Ig), because I haven't run across that heading yet. I
suspect that TCP had similar problems getting information out of the SA --
I vaguely recall his complaining about the months and years he spent doing
it. He had a little cubbyhole of an office set up in the laundry
room/garage of his retirement home in Green Valley, AZ, so he wouldn't
bother my mother (or perhaps it was vice versa).It was overflowing with
notebooks on shelves.

By the way, he was born in 1900. So this gives some extra meaning to the
fact that his tables go up to 1985. I'm now finding that 1985 data must be
in the 1987 volume, since the 1986 one I just got out of Fort Lewis last
night only shows these values up to 1984. He must have been at least 87
years old when he composed that table.

To get still earlier data, I'm afraid it will be necessary to identify
individual entries in various tables and add them up by hand. I don't think
I know enough to do that right.

The data on GDP for 1951-1998 now comes from the most recent update of the
GDP data from the U.S. Department of Commerce: Bureau of Economic Analysis.

Hey, where did you find that? Is that in the 2001 online version? Or the
Federal Reserve? Do you now have continuous data without any holes in it?
And does this include the government and private investment data for those
years?

I have now done the analyses on the data that you and Bill suggested (I've
also added data for 1999 and 2000 so these results are based on data from
the years 1951-2000).

I computed the average values for Ip, Ig and Ig+Ip as you requested,
Kenny. These averages are .15, .05 and .20 for Ip, Ig and Ig+Ip,
respectively. The standard deviations around these three averages are .02,
.01 and .01, respectively.

I trust you mean Ip/GNP and so on.

The correlations between absolute Ip, Ig and Ip+Ig and growth rate
(dGDP/dt) are .27, .22 and .25 respectively. So we do get a positive
correlation between the absolute level of lp (private investment) and growth.

That's good! I was sort of surprised when you found that investing money in
new machinery, maintenance, and so on, had nothing to do with GNP. If GNP
were to increase for some completely unrelated reason -- say, population
growth and increases in productivity -- you'd still expect to see more
money spent for new machinery and maintaining old machinery, wouldn't you?
The main question is the supposed causal relationship, and mottos like
"supply creates its own demand," and on. But even with those ideas there
should be some relationship. Though r = 0.27 is pretty miserable.

The correlation between Ig/GDP and time is an astonishing -.93.

The regression coefficients would be more to the point, I think, although
this shows that the data are clean.

The decline in government investment and the increase in private
investment shows up as a good sized negative relationship (-.54) between
Ig/GDP and Ip/GDP.

Again, what was the regression coefficient? I suppose a correlation of -.54
means something, but its pretty dangerous to draw conclusions or make
predictions from such a low correlation. The regression coefficient shows
the slope of the relationship; the correlation merely tells us how noisy
the data are.

I as not optimistic about getting the necessary data from before 1951, for
WW2 or the Great Depression. The earliest SA I have looked at is for 1955,
and I'm still looking for the tables for Ip and Ig in it. Fort Lewis has
only one earlier volume, for 1933. The "Historical Statistics" data seem to
be the same as what TCP published, with very little chance of getting all
three figures for any more of the years. We may be stuck, unless you have
better sources through RAND.

Best,

Bill P.

[From Rick Marken (2004.01.30.0945)]

In the analysis I did last night, growth rate was based on yearly GDP data
that was not adjusted for inflation. When I use the inflation adjusted
numbers (which I have through 1999) the results come out like this:

                   dGDP/dt
Ip 0.00
Ig -0.04
Ip+Ig -0.01
Ip/GDP 0.17
Ig/GDP 0.06
(Ip+Ig)/GDP 0.25

The numbers are the correlations between the investment measures in the
column on the left and growth rate (dGDP/dt) measured as the rate of change
in inflation adjusted GDP. Each correlation is based on 48 points (years
1952-1999) so there are 46 df for determining statistical significance.

So my conclusion last night [Rick Marken (2004.01.29.2150)] that

we do get a positive correlation between the absolute level of
lp (private investment) and growth.

is wrong in terms of the inflation adjusted GDP data. In fact, it's
investment as a proportion of GDP that has a positive correlation with
growth rate. Absolute investment has no relationship or a slightly negative
relationship with growth rate.

When time is factored out of the correlations for GDP adjusted investment
(investment divided by GDP), the correlations don't change much. The
correlation between (Ip+Ig)/GDP and growth rate, for example, goes from .25
to .24.

None of the correlations shown above is statistically significant. That is,
we cannot conclude with confidence, based on these correlations, that the
actual correlation between investment (however measured) and growth rate is
non-zero.

Best

Rick

···

--
Richard S. Marken
MindReadings.com
Home: 310 474 0313
Cell: 310 729 1400

[From Bill Powers (2004.01.30.0900 MST)]

Bill Williams 30 January 2004 6:42 AM CST --

Do you know the difference between the measure of investment that is a
contribution to total capital, and the measure of investment that is is
inclusive of user costs? Whether or not you know the difference, you've
used the wrong measures.

Are you referring to the User Costs defined on p. 53 of the General Theory?
Or is there a different definition in use?

And, while you are obtaining the net data, why not extend the analysis to
the interwar period, the Great Depression and WWII.

That is proving rather difficult. Can you work out which tables, or which
lines from different tables, contain the necessary data? It's very hard to
trace information backward through time, because the people compiling the
SA kept changing the data presentations. That may improve the information
going forward, but it plays hell with historical searches: the most useful
tables disappear as you go backward.

If Bill's dad had an opinion that his ratio didn't extend to the years of
the Great Depression and World War II

He mentioned WW II, not the Great Depression. But if the data are there we
might as well find them and put them into the analysis. We're not trying to
prove that the formula is right; only to find out if it fits the data, or
how much of the data it fits.

Rick says

# So we do get a positive correlation between the absolute level of lp #
(private investment) and growth.

You've confirmed What I was suggesting so many years to Bill's dad-- that
ordinarily it is thought that there is a positive relationship between
investment and economic growth. I gather that even though you are using
the wrong data, even gross investment is coorelated with growth.

Rick said that Ip -- private investment -- shows the highest correlation
with growth. However, the correlation is so low (0.27) that it barely
reveals a relationship and would be useless for predicting anything. A
scatter plot showing a correlation of 0.27 is a cloud of dots that is just
barely detectable as being oval instead of circular. Anyway, a positive
relationship does not reveal cause and effect. It is still possible that
investment follows whatever it is that actually drives growth. You'd see
the same positive correlation either way.

Since gross investment includes user costs, the assocation between net
investment and growth must of mathematical neccesary be higher, perhaps
much higher when the distortion of user costs are removed. It is
ordinarily assumed that dK/dt is proportionate to DY/dt. Who would have
thought otherwise?

The point is not what would be assumed or thought, but what is true. And
this proportionality does not reveal the direction of causation.

And, as I pointed out yesterday there is no reason to assume that net
collective investment is going to generate growth in national income as
measured by the GNP. Because as I explained, (see Peterson ) collective
investment doesn't generate a change in output that would show up as sales.

That sounds interesting. Can you elucidate? Is this like "taking in each
others' laundry?"

If, discounting for government's supposed inefficiency, just to keep Kenny
happy, there will be an implicit, non-market, and hense non-market
measurable, contribution to income by additions to government capital.
Since this flow of income isn't captured by GNP your use of a gross
measure doesn't matter, but conceptually you ought to use government
investment as reported in net terms-- if such a measure is made.

A useful suggestion. I believe it is shown. Could you explain what
"collective investment" means? What would be the indicator in the SA
tables? Or is the point that it doesn't show up there?

I ought to talk to Wally about giving a more extensive treatment to some
of the issues that have come up as a result of the controversy as to
whether investment is associated with economic growth.

I don't think "association" would be controversial, since that would say
nothing about the direction of causation. What may be controversial is the
proposition that investment follows from rather than precedes growth. I
don't mean that the growth happens first, only that conditions which would
lead to growth, such as a population increase or an improvement in
productivity, happen first, creating a situation in which growth is both
possible and needed or wanted. The growth can't happen in a money economy
unless there is some source of money with which to increase the size of the
plant or convert it to the new technology. Money is sought in those cases,
and when obtained is used for investment, if I am using the term correctly
now. Not _all_ growth requires investment, of course, at the micro level.

This way of looking at it gets around the puzzle of how production can be
increased sucessfully before there is money in the hands of consumers to
pay for the product, and how more money can be put in the hands of
consumers without first paying them to increase production. I have never
liked the assertion that supply creates its own demand, simply because
nobody has ever given a plausible explanation of how that can happen (and
there are too many easy counterexamples, starting with buggy whips). It
makes much more sense if the demand is there first, but of course if you
measure demand in terms of how much people spend to buy things, demand
can't come first. The things must be there to be bought.

A control system model gives us a different way of thinking of demand:
unsatisfied reference conditions. This can happen because of shortages, or
as you say because of advertising and other ways of getting people to raise
the reference levels, or just because many people never have satisfied all
their reference conditions. In any case, the people then demand, in the
non-technical sense, certain goods or services, and the risk involved in
tooling up to satisfy the demand is minimal.

I congratulate you on confirming what has been routinely understood since
Adam Smith.

I would say "routinely believed" rather than "routinely understood." Many
things we have found through control theory, such as the idea that behavior
is purposeful, have been believed for a very long time, by most people, but
the phenomenon of purpose has not been understood until quite recently. On
the other side of that coin, the fact that many people have believed
something for a long time is no guarantee that it is true -- I think the
odds are distinctly in the other direction. Proofs -- and disproofs -- are
useful ways of separating correct beliefs from incorrect ones. I'm sure
that economists since Adam Smith have believed at least as many things that
are wrong as are right.

Economic growth is associated with net investment. You've generated a
"proof" that economic growth is associated with gross investment. This
isn't neccesarily the case, but it is among the things that while of no
use, may be nice to know.

I'm hoping that ideas like gross and net investment, and user cost (Keynes'
definition) will be unnecessary in building the basic economic model, the
Test Bed. These technical terms are strongly associated with abstract
theorizing, and involve things that exist primarily in the psyche of the
consumer and entrepreneur, or in attempts to minimize tax liabilities by
accountants. This is not to say they are unreal, but only that they are not
necessary as a way of modeling the basic operation of the economy. They
belong more to models of the agents than to a model of the environment.
Keynes spends a good deal of time talking about the conditions under which
an entrepreneur will choose one course of action over another -- for
example, whether to sell the machinery at market, or to use the machinery
to produce goods which can be sold at a greater net profit. These scenarios
take place in the imagination of the entrepreneur, not out in the world of
real interactions. Once the entrepreneur has come to a decision about what
to do, and starts doing it, there is an action (or a policy) that can be
plugged into the model to see what its consequences will be. But none of
the entrepreneur's calculations or imagined alternatives, or unrealized
possibilities, have any physical effects in the real world. This was my
objection to Keynes' way of defining user costs: they were nothing but a
calculation in the mind of the entrepreneur. As such, they might very well
have influenced his perceptions, and thus his choice of actions, but only
the perceptions and actions would have real consequences. The actions not
taken are simply not taken.

Almost a year ago, I posted this extract from Clarence Ayres' (1946)
_The Divine Right of Capital_" to the CSGnet discussion list. Ayres' is
making a point about the concept of capital. But the point he is making
is applicable to the entire "capitalist" market society. The duality of
money and capital is repeated with variations when we attempt to think
about every aspect, and every element of the marketplace relationships in
a society.

   "Even in early modern times industry was growing fast.
That growth was a function of industrial equipment of
the community, as anybody could see even in early times.
To identify that function with the accumulation of money
was to attribute the whole thing to the men who made money.
That is what we accomplish by calling both things 'capital.'
The argument runs as follows: Economic progress results
from the growth of the material equipment of industry, that
is to say, capital, that is to say money, is created by
'saving': therefore, econmic progress is made possible by
'saving.' In this fashion the money power became functional.
   This is the idea which was forming in the minds of the
merchants and their spokesmen during the sixteenth century.
The word 'capital' first begins to appear in economic
writtings just about the middle of that century. By the time
of Locke it was a commonplace. By the time of Adam Smith it
was a 'law of nature.' In our time it is so familiar that we
are shocked to discover that every time we use the word 'capital'
we are indulging in double-talk.
   The double-talk of capital has become an engrained habit.
It runs through virtually every textbook. Textbook writers
solemnly warn their students of the dangers of confusion
which lurk behind this word. Resolutely they insist that it
must be used to refer to one thing or the other, and not both.
With exemplary clarity they declare, for example, that they
propose to use it to refer only to the physical equipment of
industry: plant, manchines, raw materials, and so forth. And
in the very next paragraph we find them saying that capital
is brought into existence by saving! But now, obviously
they are talking about money!
  That is how it is done." p. 10-11 ?? check page #

Admirably clear writing. I find it encouraging that Ayres is trying to get
back to more concrete identifications of what people have come to treat as
abstractions. This is essential for the modeling/simulation process,
because simulations, as opposed to conceptual models, have to deal in
things that happen as a function of other things that happen. I fully plan
to equip the "plant" in the Test Bed with machinery that costs money to
buy, install,. maintain, and operate, but there will be no need to identify
it as "capital." It is just machinery which plays a part in setting the
coefficient of productivity. And it will never be confused with money just
because it might hypothetically be bought or sold at some price.

The same goes for investment and savings. These are just different uses to
which money can be put. Basically, in the Test Bed, ALL money is saved when
it is received (though I'm still taking advice on how to handle non-bank
credit). Even borrowed money goes immediately into savings. By saying it's
saved, I mean only to say that it is accumulated in an account somewhere.
Then this money is taken out, immediately or later, to be used for paying
wages to workers and managers and capital income (including profits) to
owners and investors, and for buying more machinery or maintaining what
exists (real depreciation costs, as opposed to mere calculations of
lessened value). So "savings" is simply whatever exists in the place of
accumulation at a given time; it is being added to and depleted constantly
by all operations that lead to acquiring money or spending it, which go on
simultaneously and continuously. At present no interest accrues to savings,
but that is easily remedied.

So in the Test Bed, or perhaps we could say the Basic Economics model,words
like interest and savings and investment and capital do not have all the
nuances of meaning that they have to theoreticians in economics, or to
entrepreneurs, or even to consumers. They are just names for places where
money is temporarily kept, or for processes involving transfers of money
(or credit) from one entity to another. Also, goods are handled as goods,
not as equivalent money value. They have to be handled as goods&services
because consumers have reference levels for them as goods&services. They
can't eat money.

I don't know why I have had such trouble with saying this, but I think this
is the root of many of my difficulties on CSGnet. It is not my intent to
say anything at an abstract level about economics. The way we classify
things has no impact on how a simulation works. Whether something is called
profit or earnings or wages is of no consequence in the simulation; we
simply keep track of who gets how much, and for doing what, and make sure
the books always balance every 0.001 day.

I think TCP was trying for something similar, but not knowing how to do
simulations or mathematical modeling, he confused the two worlds, the world
of imaginary economic classifications, and the world of actual processes
and transactions. Also, he didn't believe that individual characteristics
had anything to do with economics, which made it a little difficult for him
to accept the idea that people have reference levels and try to satisfy
them. He wouldn't have touched such a proposition with the proverbial
304-centimeter Pope.

Best,

Bill P.

[From Bill Powers (2004.01.30.1137 MST)]

Rick Marken (2004.01.30.0945) --

None of the correlations shown above is statistically significant. That is,
we cannot conclude with confidence, based on these correlations, that the
actual correlation between investment (however measured) and growth rate is
non-zero.

Let's not draw any final conclusions, but this is very good reason to
re-open debates about investment and growth. It could be that there is some
other measure of investment (or immediate effects of investing) that would
show a much higher correlation. For example, I've been assuming (looking
ahead) that productivity in the Test Bed should be a positive function of
some sort of how much money is spent on machinery (capital equipment),
either to maintain it or replace it or add to it. Maybe productivity is a
number we should be looking at, or investments that are specifically
devoted to things that directly affect productivity. The model has to
account for the source of money used for investment, but that's relatively
simple. There would be little reason for investment, however, if the result
were not either to increase productivity or keep it from decreasing. Maybe
there would be other reasons but I don't know them.

Best,

Bill P.

[From Bill Powers (2004.01.30.0900 MST)]

Bill Williams 30 January 2004 6:42 AM CST --

Do you know the difference between the measure of investment that is a
contribution to total capital, and the measure of investment that is is
inclusive of user costs? Whether or not you know the difference, you've
used the wrong measures.

Are you referring to the User Costs defined on p. 53 of the General Theory?
Or is there a different definition in use?

# Basicly yes p. 52-3. the section (i) part down to about the 2/3 part of the # page. Professor Druun's dissertation has some very interesting commentary on # the issue of defining income, user cost, etc.

And, while you are obtaining the net data, why not extend the analysis to
the interwar period, the Great Depression and WWII.

That is proving rather difficult.

I can understand and sympthize with the difficulties. Eventually I think it really needs to be carried out because the two big things in the 20th century were the Depression and WWII. The point at least for me in doing macro-economic analysis is to understand the causal factors that are involved so that effective policy measures can be developed. There is, I think a very real danger that working on the relatively stable 1950 2000 period may generate misleading answers, if what you are intrested in is preventing things like the Great Depression, or the sort of inflation that took place in post-war I Germany.

Can you work out which tables, or which
lines from different tables, contain the necessary data?

# I am no expert in this regard, I'm not even a novice. And, I don't know # anyone who really knows what they are doing. And, in the last 20 years the # funding for such work seems to have gone away.

It's very hard to trace information backward through time,

# Tell me about it.

because the people compiling the SA kept changing the data presentations.

# They seem to like to do that.

That may improve the information going forward, but it plays hell with historical searches: the most useful tables disappear as you go backward.

# Maybe if we wait for another century to accumulate some good data ???

If Bill's dad had an opinion that his ratio didn't extend to the years of
the Great Depression and World War II

He mentioned WW II, not the Great Depression. But if the data are there we
might as well find them and put them into the analysis. We're not trying to
prove that the formula is right; only to find out if it fits the data, or
how much of the data it fits.

Rick says

# So we do get a positive correlation between the absolute level of lp #
(private investment) and growth.

You've confirmed What I was suggesting so many years to Bill's dad-- that
ordinarily it is thought that there is a positive relationship between
investment and economic growth. I gather that even though you are using
the wrong data, even gross investment is coorelated with growth.

Rick said that Ip -- private investment -- shows the highest correlation
with growth. However, the correlation is so low (0.27) that it barely
reveals a relationship and would be useless for predicting anything.

# I would agree-- to the extend you make a judgment based on Rick's us of
# gross investment. But, I'd be will to bet (a small bet) that shifting to
# the use of net investment ought to improve this hint (0.27) to a much more
# respectable number. At least I would be surprized if this didn't happen.

A
scatter plot showing a correlation of 0.27 is a cloud of dots that is just
barely detectable as being oval instead of circular.

# I understand, but having gone this far, why not do it the way it should have
# been done to start with-- that run the numbers using net Investment

Anyway, a positive relationship does not reveal cause and effect.

# Why are you telling me this?

It is still possible that investment follows whatever it is that actually drives growth.

# I actually think several things in combination drive growth, technological
# change, a stimulative rather than a contractionary supply of money, being
# the two main things.

Since gross investment includes user costs, the assocation between net
investment and growth must of mathematical neccesary be higher, perhaps
much higher when the distortion of user costs are removed. It is
ordinarily assumed that dK/dt is proportionate to DY/dt. Who would have
thought otherwise?

The point is not what would be assumed or thought,

# I've had enough of you lecturing me Bill --- as you say, just stuff it.
# if you want to place the remainder of the following on the CSGnet next
# Friday. I've got better things to do than sort through your pontificating # on economics, and whatever. See you, perhaps.

Bill Williams

···

-----Original Message-----
From: Control Systems Group Network (CSGnet) on behalf of Bill Powers
Sent: Fri 1/30/2004 12:30 PM
To: CSGNET@listserv.uiuc.edu
Subject: Re: PCT vs Economics?

[Bjorn
Simonsen (2004.01.30,23:05 EuST)]

[From
Rick Marken (2004.01.29.2150)]

I
computed the average values for Ip, Ig and Ig+Ip as you requested, Kenny. These
averages

are .15, .05 and .20 for Ip, Ig and Ig+Ip, respectively. The standard
deviations around these

three averages are .02, .01 and .01, respectively.

I
did the same for the Norwegian GDP and found for Ip, Ig and Ig+Ip


1970

1971

1972

1973

1974

1975

Gross fixed capital formation, Ip

24508

30194

31579

37445

45772

57527

General government, Ig

3932

4615

5444

5751

6517

7807

Changes in stocks and stat.
discrepancies

5279

4040

2813

4226

7773

5617

Gross capital formation, (Ip

  • changes Stocks and stat.discr.)

29787

34234

34392

41671

53545

63144

Gross domestic product4, GDP

91100

101825

112821

127974

148322

169896

4) Gross
domestic product is measured at market values, while value added by industry
is measured at basic values


1976

1977

1978

1979

1980

1981

1982

1983

1984

Gross fixed capital formation, Ip

70120

79282

74601

78910

84411

96620

107619

121815

129962

General government, Ig

8907

10150

11729

11286

12314

12654

12760

13880

14364

Changes in stocks and stat.
discrepancies

4773

3625

-3557

-3768

4160

14

3819

-10075

1353

Gross capital formation, (Ip

  • changes Stocks and stat.discr.)

74893

82907

71044

75142

88571

96634

111438

111740

131315

Gross domestic product4, GDP

193812

218484

239951

264802

314363

358176

396186

439023

494457


Gross fixed capital formation, Ip

1985

1986

1987

1988

1989

1990

1991

General government, Ig

134922

155389

170915

181428

175057

156210

152206

Changes in stocks and stat.
discrepancies

15507

18924

23173

26141

27151

25740

28875

Gross capital formation, (Ip

  • changes Stocks and stat.discr.)

8968

22077

15445

5616

4297

11903

9339

Gross domestic product4, GDP

143890

177466

186360

187044

179354

168113

161545

547286

561842

613157

643375

686034

726799

769782



Gross fixed capital formation, Ip

1992

1993

1994

1995

1996

1997

1998

General government, Ig

151087

164126

174378

186548

208603

264561

308695

Changes in stocks and stat.
discrepancies

29999

27375

27826

29886

31392

37254

41591

Gross capital formation, (Ip

  • changes Stocks and stat.discr.)

8425

8298

15836

28041

12076

18866

23792

Gross domestic product4, GDP

159512

172424

190214

214589

220679

264561

308695

790300

830416

873410

937445

1026924

1111349

1132134


Gross fixed capital formation, Ip

1999

2000

2001*

2002

General government, Ig

292560

307810

297719

287690

Changes in stocks and stat.
discrepancies

42297

38944

41703

42454

Gross capital formation, (Ip

  • changes Stocks and stat.discr.)

20732

35044

27032

28434

Gross domestic product4, GDP

292560

307810

297719

287690

1233039

1469075

1526601

1520728



Arithmetic mean Ip/GDP,1970 -2002

0,26

Standard deviation, Ip 1970-2002

0,05

Arithmetic mean (Ig)/GDP,1970 -2002

0,04

Standard deviation, Ig 1970-2002

0,01

Arithmetic mean (Ip+Ig)/GDP,1970 -2002

0,27

Standard deviation, (Ip+Ig)/GDP 1970-2002

0,06

Arithmetic mean ca10 year(70-79,80-89,90-02)-

0,31

0,27

0,21

Standard deviation ca10 year,(70-79,80-89,90-02)

0,03

0,01

0,03

Increase - Gross fixed capital
formation, Ip 1970-2002 in %

1073,9

Increase -Gross domestic product4, GDP-
1970-2002 in %

1569,3

The
arithmetic mean is sinking and I think had an investment more than normal from
the 70’s to the 90’s because of investment in oil. I will study this more and
come back.

In the Norwegian GDP we use the following definition
for Investment

Gross fixed capital formation: Net acquisitions of fixed capital with
duration of more than a year.

The Norwegian GDP = Consumption (total) + _Gross fixed
formation, Ip _+ Changes in stocks and statistical discrepancies + Export-
Import

I am working with my Test Bed based on a theory called General
Equilibrium. The advantage here is a kind of time variable. We talk about
production today and production to morrow. You will hear from me.

bjorn

image001.wmz (1.87 KB)

oledata1.mso (10.4 KB)

[From Rick Marken (2004.01.30.1440)]

Bill Powers (2004.01.30.0746 MST)]

I told you it wouldn't work. It doesn't work for me, either.

You're preaching to the choir. I just lost it, I'm afraid. I hope Kenny
accepts my apology.

Those tables have been very hard (impossible) to find in early editions of
the Statistical Abstracts. I can't get into the Federal Reserve data base
because it costs $175 per year to subscribe (!).

Try Federal Reserve Economic Data | FRED | St. Louis Fed. This Fed site for data is called
FRED. There's free data there, including Gross government and private
investment going back to 1951 and earlier. I put them into my spreadsheet
this morning, replacing TCPs numbers. FREDs numbers for Gross government
spending are separated into defense and non-defense. I used the sum of these
two numbers for the revised values of Ig. These Ig numbers are much lower
than those I got from TCP. They are also smaller than the recent one's I got
from the Statistical Abstracts. The Gross private investment numbers are
comparable in size to the ones I got from the Statistical Abstract.

I did a new analysis using the Fed gross investment data for Ig (I added
defense and non-defense together, but it doesn't make much difference to the
results of the analysis) and Ip. The results (in terms of the correlations
between investment and growth) are very similar to what I got with the
Statistical Abstract data.

               Stat. Abstracts FRED

                   dGDP/dt dGDP/dt
Ip 0.00 0.0
Ig -0.04 -0.06
Ip+Ig -0.01 0.0
Ip/GDP 0.17 0.42
Ig/GDP 0.06 0.06
(Ip+Ig)/GDP 0.25 0.48

The correlations for investment as a proportion of GDP actually become more
_positive_. This could mean that investment causes growth or that growth
causes investment. Correlation, as they say, does not imply causality. The
only way to understand what is going on is through modeling. But I did look
at the lagged correlations between investment and growth and these
correlations strongly suggest that investment is "pulled" by growth rather
than growth being "pushed" by investment.

When you look at the correlation between investment in year t and growth in
year t+1 you find correlations of -.25, .07 and -.28 when investment is
measured as (Ip+Ig)/GDP, Ig/GDP and Ip/GDP, respectively. That is,
private investment is negatively related to the rate of growth during the
year _after_ the investment is made! On the other hand, when you look at the
correlation between growth in year t and investment in year t+1 you find
correlations of .32, .07 and .3 for investment measured as (Ip+Ig)/GDP,
Ig/GDP and Ip/GDP, respectively. That is, private investment is
positively related to the growth rate that existed the year _before_ the
investment is made! It looks like it's only the private sector of investment
that acts this way, which makes sense since the level of government
investment seems more likely to follow politics rather than economic growth.
The data suggest that private investment increases in response to economic
expansion and decreases in response to economic contraction.

To get still earlier data, I'm afraid it will be necessary to identify
individual entries in various tables and add them up by hand. I don't think
I know enough to do that right.

Some of the Fed data (at the FRED site) goes back to 1929.

The data on GDP for 1951-1998 now comes from the most recent update of the
GDP data from the U.S. Department of Commerce: Bureau of Economic Analysis.

Hey, where did you find that? Is that in the 2001 online version?

That's the FRED data. It's available on line in Excel spreadsheets.

Do you now have continuous data without any holes in it?
And does this include the government and private investment data for those
years?

Yes. I now have continuous GDP and investment data from 1951 to 1999. I will
have it (on a quarterly rather than yearly basis) from about 1946 to the
present once I get things all straightened out.

The decline in government investment and the increase in private
investment shows up as a good sized negative relationship (-.54) between
Ig/GDP and Ip/GDP.

Again, what was the regression coefficient?

Just square the correlation to get the regression coefficient. r2 = -.54^2 =
.29. By the way, the correlation between lg/GDP and lp/GDP goes down to .4
with the FRED data (r2 = .16)

I as not optimistic about getting the necessary data from before 1951, for
WW2 or the Great Depression.

It might be hard to get stuff pre-1929 but I did see some tables at the FRED
site that go back to 1929. But they may not be variables of interest to us.

Best regards

Rick

···

---
Richard S. Marken
MindReadings.com
Home: 310 474 0313
Cell: 310 729 1400

[From Mike Acree (2004.01.30.1450 PST)]

Rick Marken (2004.01.30.1440)--

Just square the correlation to get the regression coefficient.

The regression coefficient _b_ is the correlation coefficient multiplied by sd(Y)/sd(X). It gives the change in Y per unit of X. If we're predicting apples from oranges, _b_ has the dimension apple-oranges divided by square oranges--which, when multiplied by an orange, gives you an apple. R-squared is dimensionless, the proportion of variance in Y "accounted for" by X.

Mike

[From Rick Marken (2004.01.30.1510)]

Mike Acree (2004.01.30.1450 PST)]

Rick Marken (2004.01.30.1440)--

Just square the correlation to get the regression coefficient.

The regression coefficient _b_ is the correlation coefficient multiplied by
sd(Y)/sd(X). It gives the change in Y per unit of X. If we're predicting
apples from oranges, _b_ has the dimension apple-oranges divided by square
oranges--which, when multiplied by an orange, gives you an apple. R-squared
is dimensionless, the proportion of variance in Y "accounted for" by X.

Of course. When I read it I just assumed that Bill was asking for R^2, not
b. He was obviously asking for a measure of the goodness of the correlation
between investment and growth, which the slope of the regression line (the
regression coefficient) is definitely not. So I read "regression
coefficient" as "R^2". Control of imagination.

Best

Rick

···

--
Richard S. Marken
MindReadings.com
Home: 310 474 0313
Cell: 310 729 1400