[From Bruce Abbott (950630.1550 EST)]
Bill Powers (950629.1810 MDT) --
Bruce Abbott (950629.1530 EST)
The "data for the first set" did not use running rate rather than
the mean response rate, they used mean response rate. What you've
done here is to compute the mean response rates based on the mean
running rates and postreinforcement pause lengths. Here are the
results from the two sources compared (averages only, for
illustration):Ok. Actually, you did pretty well estimating from graphs. The revised
graph for the second set is . . .
Bill, I think you understand, then you say something that seems to indicate
that you don't follow at all. The first and second set ARE THE SAME DATA.
Where they differ, it's just because of the uncertainty of my estimation
from the graphs. Therefore, when you say
Interesting that about the same reference level is implied.
you are saying essentially that it is interesting that the same data imply
the same reference level. It's not interesting at all.
Imagine that at each X you have the values of three variables, Y, A and B.
You have a graph showing each variable as a function of X. Reading from the
graph, you estimate Y, A, and B. But Y = A + B. Thus a plot of Y and a
plot of A + B should be identical except for errors in estimating the values
of Y, A, and B. It should come as no surprise at all that the graphs of Y
vs X and (A+B) vs X follow almost identical functions.
Where behavior influences perception which influences behavior this
notion of directional influence loses meaning, but I see nothing
wrong with such statements as, "given a particular reference level,
adding disturbance X to the controlled perceptual variable causes
the system output Y to change."I'll accept the term "influence" because I've always understood that to
mean a non-exclusive contribution to the final result. But to use
"cause" when more than one variable affects the outcome, it seems to me,
gives the wrong impression.
How about "effect"? Most researchers use "effect" as a synonym for "influence."
On what basis do you say the "entire data set ... shows effects of
satiation"?Here is the relationship between reinforcements and behavior rate that
is (as I understand it) assumed to exist, with satiation effects shown
at high reinforcement rates:*
* "satiation"
* |
*Behavior rate *| *
* * |
* |
* * |
* |
* * |
* |
* * |
* |
* * reinforcement rate
* *****************|*******************To avoid satiation effects, one would keep the rewards small enough and
the ratio requirement high enough to avoid getting into the region where
an increase in reinforcement rate no longer produced an increase in
behavior rate.If we make the reinforcers even larger or the ratio requirement even
smaller, we get into even higher reinforcement rates, so the total curve
now looks like this:"satiation"
* |
*Behavior rate |
* *| *
* * | *
* |
* * | *
* Operant cond. |
* * | control *
* region | region
* * | *
* |
* * reinforcement rate *
* *****************|**************************************************To the right of the satiation point we have "supersatiation." Greater
reinforcement goes with less behavior. The data to the left of the
satiation point follow the expected relationships of operant
conditioning: greater reinforcement goes with more behavior. We have
reason to believe that left of the satiation point, the observed
relationship is a matter of dividing time between the particular
behavior being measured and other behaviors. To the right, we are seeing
essentially continuous engagement in a single behavior and control of a
single variable, misnamed the reinforcer.
I think you're mixing apples and oranges here. A plot showing satiation
effects would give the rate of responding as some function of the quantity
consumed, NOT the rate of consumption as shown in the diagram. Responding
at a rate to the right of your "satiation" line does not mean that the
animal is satiated; if that were true there would be no responding at all in
this region.
In PCT terms we could equate satiation with the reduction in error in the
nutrient system (although again things get complicated when you begin to
consider the different control systems which may be involved, e.g., stomach
loading, blood glucose level, etc.). This lowering of error would reduce
the reference value for food consumption and thus the rate of lever-pressing
on which the food is contingent. I don't think you wish to assert that the
reference level for food consumption (and thus for lever pressing) is zero
to the right of your "satiation" line. Consequently, I'm mystified as to
what you do mean by this line.
The data sets you reported, at least in terms of average rates, fit the
curve to the right of the satiation point. Clearly, the apparent
satiation point found when approached from the left is very much less
than the reference level of the control system, which is all the way to
the right. If you have been identifying the satiation point with the
reference level, perhaps you need to reconsider.
What an odd thing to say. I believe it was I who pointed out in my initial
graph of these data that the reference point, as determined by the straight
line fit, is around 460. I think I made it absolutely clear that I identify
the reference level exactly where you identify it, not at your so-called
"satiation" point.
In reinforcement-theory terms, the region to the left of this point is where
the long delay to reinforcement and the high response cost weaken the net
reinforcement for responding to the point where the "reinforcer" can no
longer support the response, especially if there are alternative, competing
sources of reinforcement available to the animal. I'm working (slowly)
toward a model that will (I believe) demonstrate these effects.
Bill Powers (950630.1130 MDT) --
Bruce Abbott (950627.1055 EST)
Even if the subtractive cost is a quadratic function of the behavior
rate, the curve never falls below horizontal. It's just the way the
feedback effects work. You need to give the cost-benefit variable a
nonlinear effect on the control system itself such as varying the gain
in its output function. Then you can get the two-valued effect. I've
tried most of these variations, and there are probably still others I
haven't thought of.Then by adjusting the gain of this loop you can get the
whole curve, over ratio requirements from 1 to 160, to match the real
data very closely.It seems to me that this solution is ad hoc. Why would one expect
the reference level for effort to be set so high?Yes, quite ad hoc. It's the only ad hoc model I found that worked. One
reason why the reference level for cost might be set high is that below
some amount of effort, the body's normal resupply control systems can
keep up with the energy expenditure, so in effect the only net cost is
in use of stored energy which would be wasted anyway if not used. As the
food supply diminishes and the efforts required to maintain it increase,
there comes a point where normal metabolism starts to fall behind the
rate of energy usage, and that is where I would expect the commencement
of attempts to conserve energy by reducing activities -- lowering the
gain in many control loops. High-gain control loops simply consume more
energy than low-gain loops, because of correcting tiny errors all the
time.In other words, local cost can exceed local benefit by a certain amount
as long as the whole system can make up for the losses. When the whole
system reaches its control limits, we would expect some sort of major
adjustment to begin.
O.K., that sounds reasonable, if not convincing. My guess (also only a
guess) is that it doesn't take such a crisis to get a rat to abandon
unproductive (or counterproductive) activities. At some point the gain is
just not worth the cost. But good, perhaps we can find a way to test these
alternative hypotheses.
Regards,
Bruce