[From Bruce Abbott (971201.1550 EST)]
Rick Marken (971201.1000) --
Bruce Abbott (971201.1215 EST)
Sorry to disappoint you, Hydra, but I'm not so easily vanquished.
Boy, do I know that! I didn't really expect that you would be
vanquished. Don't think there is any way the Hydra can win this
fight.
Oh sure there is. You can just keep raising new spurious arguments until I
just give up trying to get you to seriously consider my position.
PCT is like heaven. The people who want to get here are dying to
get in;-) Their old misconceptions about human nature have to die
before they can be reborn as control theorists. You seem to be
comfortable with your misconceptions. So enjoy!
I agree with Mark Twain: if heaven is anything like the way it's described,
I don't want any part of it. I'd rather be alive. Anyway, I doubt if I'm
as comfortable with my "misconceptions" as you appear to be with yours.
I was talking about what is observed in the steady state. There is
a nice, systematic, IV-DV relationship between disturbance and
output
Yes. There is. But you said:
But when we hold, say, reference signal constant, then variation
in disturbance causes variation in output.
This statement is false because disturbance variations do not
_cause_ output variations in a closed loop system. Your statement
would have been true if you had said "disturbance variations are
systematically related to output variations" (as you did the
second time around) or "disturbance variations _appear to_ cause
output variations, but don't".
Now this is precisely what I have been talking about. Under my definition
of "cause" the statement is true; under yours it isn't. I have pointed out
the difference in meaning and noted that it only adds confusion to apply
one's own definitions to another's words after the other has made clear what
_he_ means by them.
I've heard a lot recently about how awful it is that psychologists sometimes
adopt words in common use and then apply special meanings to them within a
particular research context. It seems to me that this engineering
definition of cause represents a case in point -- a term borrowed from the
common vernacular and given a more specific meaning. I think the average
joe would be surprised to hear that turning the light switch "on" does not
cause the light to come on (if everything is working properly). The airline
pilot would be equally mystified (and alarmed!) to learn that pulling back
on an aircraft steering column does not cause the elevator to rise (even
though that relation is mediated by a servomechanism). The folks at the
Centers for Disease Contol would be equally surprised to learn that smoking
does not cause cancer. When palentologists suggest that the extinction of
the dinosaurs may have been caused by an asteroid collision, they do not
mean by this that every dinosaur was hit by the asteroid, but that the
asteroid set off a chain of events which eventually lead to the mass
extinction. The limited engineering definition simply does not cover the
most common uses of the term "cause," in or out of science.
I am not arguing that engineers should change their more limited definition
of cause, as I appreciate the need for it within the context in which the
definition is applied. I am arguing that when psychologists do the same
(for similar reasons), it is no sin.
As for substituting the phrase "systematically related to," I find it an
inadequate substitute, because it fails to convey the essential feature that
"cause" does: a change in Variable A (the cause) _leads to_ a change in
Variable B (the effect). The term "cause" asserts a directional property in
the systematic relationship that "systematically related to" does not.
The assertion that A causes B may be true whether or not it is also true
that B causes A, so by saying that A causes B, one has not ruled out
feedback or the possibility of circular causality.
I am not suggesting that the introduction of the term "cause" (however
defined) is necessary or fruitful when discussing how closed-loop systems
(including control systems) work. I can certainly get by without it. My
argument is directed against the notion that the use of this causal language
by someone necessarily implies that they hold to a particular model of
causality, i.e., stimulus-response. It seems to me that this is exactly the
inference often drawn here. It is the only explanation I can come up with
for silly ideas like the notion that psychologists believe incentives "make"
people do things.
I know how simple proportional control systems work.
The only thing you don't seem to know is how living control
systems work;-)
One of the things _you_ don't seem to know is that I do. You have a strong
motivation for believing that I don't. After all, if I did, then our
disagreements might hinge on something more substantive, and that is a
possibility you do not wish to consider.
I am confident that you will prevail against the hydra, preserving
your ingnorance of PCT. But the fight is fun even if the end result
is known.
Speaking of ignorance, I suggested in another post that you, a trained
"cognitive" psychologist, might know something about utility theory.
Perhaps it is just too painful to recall, given your present perspective?
Regards,
Bruce