[From Kenny Kitzke (980811.0900 EDT)]
<i.kurtzer (980810.1930)>
Rick Marken said:
"Either way, the coercer gets what he wants; the intentions of the coercee
(for the 4 billionth time) are irrelevant to whether or not coercion is
going on."
<Here you are arguing that the "why" of the coercee is not a meaningful
distinction in terms of social interactions. Note that i am not denying
the
superfluousness of the weaker agent's intention in predicting what will
happen--in the case, coitus--only that it is a meaningful distiction. And
one meaningful in terms of PCT.
so the question is:is the "why" meaningful or not in social interactions?
Since it is in PCT applied to single persons, the "why's" should be
important
in understanding social interactions.>
I think you have captured the nub of the disagreement concerning the
definition of coercion as it relates to PCT science. These are good
questions that deserve careful answers from the theorists.
Rick (for the 4 billionth and one time), the stronger person is controlling
his perceptions of the actions of another by force if necessary. Such self
controlling can not be unilaterally defined as a social interaction.
When this type of control is producing behavior in another person against
their will, we call such control coercion. When a stronger person is
perceived as having the capability to use overwhelming force but does not
use it, I would call such control, intimidation instead of virtual
coercion.
It may be a matter of language, but the improper use of language has caused
much confusion in all sciences. I wish we could find an agreement.
I have to wonder, does it make sense to claim that coercion is occurring
when there is no determination of conflict between the parties to the
interaction? If the coercee's intentions do not matter for coercion; how
could you consider the interaction as conflict? If coercion is not
dependent upon conflict, then why don't we just describe all behavior of
all people possessing overwhelming force ability as coercers all the time?
Kenny