VOT adaptation question

[From: Bruce Nevin (Tue 920423 15:24:42)]

(Rick Marken (920623.1200) ) --

there is an apparent change in output in order to keep a sensory
result constant in the face of disturbance (in this case the disturbance
being the adaptation).

Is adaptation a disturbance? (Serious question. I don't understand
what is going on in situations to which people apply this term.)

I just didn't see how a reduction in VOT could
preserve the /pi/ or /ti/ perception

Depends on how much onset of voicing shifts relative to oral release of
the stop consonant, and on the difference between this relationship and
the corresponding one with voiced stops. Roughly:

mouth xxxxxxxxxx---------------
larynx -------------vvvvvvvvvvvv

mouth xxxxxxxxxx---------------
larynx ----vvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvvv

Here, xxxxx is oral closure, and vvvv is laryngeal vibration for
voicing. VOT is earlier for voiced stops, later for voiceless.