[From Tim Carey (980502.1100)]
[From Rick Marken (980501.1430)]
All I meant to say is that you can see coercion using a version
of the Test; you disturb a variable and watch for actions that
protect that variable from disturbance. When you remove a child
from the room you can see (from it's struggling) that it's trying
to stay in the room.
You can see struggling and you make an interpretation that it's because the
child wants you to stop what you're doing. This wouldn't bother you anyway
since the intentions of the child are unimportant but how do you know the
child hasn't discovered that by struggling he gets the adult to spend
_more_ time with him and pay him _more_ attention? Is the child now
coercing the adult?
The kid is controlling for being in one place
and (unsuccessfully) resisting you efforts (disturbances) to
move him to another place. Of course, we know (from PCT) that
the kid is resisting your disturbance because he has an
intention (reference) to be in a particular place.
Hang on, are the intentions of the coercee relevant or not?
That the kid is being hindered. Kids put up pretty intense
resistance to disturbances (they scream, cry, flail -- you'll
see;-)) which seem like pretty clear evidence that _some_ perception
the kid cares about is being disturbed, even if you can't tell
exactly what perception that is.
And without knowing what it is, you have absolutely no idea whether you
assisting them or blocking them from controlling a perception that is
important to them. Not that this matters anymore because the intention of
the coercee is irrelevant (see below)
> At the moment you and Bill are saying that the intentions of the
> coercee are irrelevant.
To the coercer, yes.
> You must accept therefore that sometimes when someone coerces
> another person what the coercer wants may coincide with what the
> coercee wants and hence coercion in this instance is actually a
> helping situation.
Yes, of course. My mother does this to me all the time;-)
So coercion is a process that can either hinder or help the recipient.
But your actions _influence_ what you do (how your controlled
perceptions behave). Remember p = o + d. In order to control
p you have to be able to _vary_ o. Coercion eliminates your ability
to vary o (or eliminates the effect of o on p), so p varies right
along with d, uncontrolled.
And also remember e = r - p. I only experience error if my p is different
Right. But you can't control your perceptions if you lack the
ability to vary your outputs, as necessary, to bring perceptions
to their reference states and remain there, protected from
disturbance.
But doesn't the reference state _define_ what p must be. So why do I need
to vary my outputs if I can change r?
> In terms of the model, then, all a coercer can ever control (if
> they control anything at all) is what information is coming in
> to my system.
No. What the coercer controls is qo (the environmental correlate
of p) and/or o (the coercee's output).
So does controlling qo affect p or not? Are we speaking of a situation now
where you control my actions but I don't perceive you doing that?
References are set as the means of controlling higher level
perceptions. So you can't really control your references (set
them to any arbitrary value).
But if I'm coerced for any length of time, wouldn't I experience error and
wouldn't reorganisation be more than likely. But again, we're talking about
the coercee and this person is irrelevant.
Perhaps they can't make Victor _feel_ like he's being coerced;
but he can sure be coerced. I suppose it's nice for Victor
(and anyone else) if he really doesn't feel like he is
being coerced when he is. But that doesn't change the fact
that he _is_ being coerced.
I think I see now why you don't like Bill's (and my) discussion
of coercion. You seem to think that PCT shows that there is no
such thing as coercion because people are autonomous perceptual
control systems.
Actually Rick I _love_ this discussion with you and Bill, I'm finding it
enthralling. From your paragraph above you are saying that it is irrelevant
whether or not someone perceives they are being coerced. If my intention is
to coerce you and I can use force to control your actions then it is
coercion whether you like it or not.
Of course the flip side of this is that it doesn't matter what the coercee
says or complains about. If I say you're coercing me and you say "No, sonny
I'm just helping you", then that's fine ... no coercion here.
Does this apply to other things like bullying? If the victim says they feel
bullied but the bully says "No, I was just having fun", then there's no
bullying right?
Similarly, with sexual harassment. If I feel sexually harassed (most people
would call me lucky ;-)) but the person doing the harassing says "No I was
just complimenting him" then there's no harassment right?
What about a handshake? If I use force to move a little kids hand up and
down along with mine, then this is coercion right because it doesn't matter
whether or not they want to shake my hand as well. If I say to my 3 year
old nephew "Lachlan, it's 7.00 o'clock, I'm going to carry you into bed
now"; then that's coercion _whether or not_ he replies with "That's great,
thanks uncle Tim", or "No, I want to stay up longer".
You're right about my interpretation of coercion. I see things _exactly_
opposite to you and Bill. I don't think it has anything to do with the
intention of the coercer. For me, coercion is defined by the coercee. If
you feel coerced, you're coerced. If you don't feel coerced you're not
coerced.
Cheers,
Tim
···
from my r and I control my r.