[From Bill Powers (980521.0835 MDT)]
Tim Carey (980521.1820)--
You're really trying hard to win this one, aren't you? Don't celebrate
too soon.Nope. I'm not controlling for winning Bill, how would it come to be that
you would even frame up this discussion in terms of winning and losing?
That's how I interpreted your "yippee," to mean that you had caught us in a
contradiction and were celebrating the pleasure that gave you.
There are two ways to think about this result. You can say that the child
finally learned the right behavior and no longer needs to be coerced into
showing it, or you can say that the child is producing this behavior to
keep the coercer from forcing, yelling, disapproving, or hurting thechild.
The first view is the one that your idea of coercion supports: if the
adult is not actually applying force, yelling, disapproving, or hurting the
child, and the child is doing what the adult wants, no coercion is going
on.And now who's putting words into other people's mouths ??
Wait a minute -- that's NOT what you mean? I thought you only counted it as
coercion when the person was actually applying some kind of force to the
coercee. I thought that if the coercee spontaneously did what the coercer
wanted, so the coercer didn't have to take any action, you would say no
coercion was taking place. If that's not what you mean, I guess I don't
have any idea of what you mean by coercion. Please explain.
It's YOUR definition of coercion that says a classroom full of well-behaved
children is not being coerced. Mine says that they are (or may be)
well-behaved only because the teacher is present, ready to throw them out
of the class if they misbehave. They are spontaneously doing what the
teacher wants them to do, and they are being coerced, in my view, even
though no force is being applied right at the moment. The force WILL be
applied if they ever should behave differently from what the teacher wants
to see, and they know it.
I have said all along that ONE of my criteria for coercion to exist would
be that the coercer had intentions for the coercee to behave in a
particular way. THE OTHER criteria is what the intentions of the coercee
are. If they have the same intentions as the coercer it's not coercion, if
they do then it is.
That's what I said. If the coercee intends the same behavior that the
coercer wants to see, the coercer will obviously not apply any force to the
coercee. You don't push a child back in line if he's already in line. So
when the coercer sees the child spontaneously doing what the coercer wants
to see (indicating that the child's reference level for the behavior is the
same as the coercer's), the coercer exerts no force on the child. I have
described exactly the same situation you just described, yet you say I'm
putting words in your mouth. Please explain what the difference is.
So in your example above you would simply ask the
coercee or apply some version of the Test to see what they were controlling
for.
I don't see what's so objectionable about that idea.
Who said anything about "objectionable?" You seem to be jumping to the
conclusion that if I say coercion is going on, I'm saying it SHOULDN'T be
going on. The only thing I'm objecting to is using coercion and then
claiming that it's not happening. Or, if that word is the hangup, using
force or the threat of force to overpower a weaker, smaller control system
in order to control its behavior and then saying you're not doing that. If
you're going to do that, don't claim you're not doing it. If you are going
to do it, analyze it correctly. That's all I'm after.
Under this picture, the child is behaving
correctlyonly out of fear of what the adult will do if the right behavior is not
shown.How do you know that the child is acting out of fear? There is a huge
assumption going on here that if someone is bigger and stronger then the
only reason anyone weaker would do what they wanted them to is out of fear.
This is a ridiculous question. If I say, "Suppose the 4-horse wins, what
should I do with the money?" do you reply, "How do you know the 4-horse is
going to win?" I'm saying that under my interpretation (that is, IF the
children know the teacher will apply force to them whenever they deviate
from a certain behavior -- do you understand "IF?") it is likely that the
children would be behaving well to keep the teacher from applying force to
them, not because they had somehow agreed that they liked behaving that
way. It does not follow from that that any particular bigger and stronger
person would threaten to use or actually use force on the children, so they
would feat him or her. However, a bigger and stronger person (i.e., an
adult) who DOES threaten or use force is likely to get compliance from the
children because they want (I am assuming) to avoid having force used on
them, which is what I mean by saying they "fear" it.
Please read what I'm saying carefully. I'm trying to say it carefully, and
you should read it the same way.
Best,
Bill P.