Coercion

[From Rick Marken (980520.1000)]

Bruce Gregory (980520.1232 EDT) --

Nothing is wrong with it [our analysis of RTP], it just doesn't
tell us what makes RTP different from the system you and Bill
grew up with.

There is _very_ little difference I can see between RTP and the
system I grew up with. So? Is the PCT analysis of RTP wrong if
it doesn't lead to the conclusion you want?

Best

Rick

···

--
Richard S. Marken Phone or Fax: 310 474-0313
Life Learning Associates e-mail: rmarken@earthlink.net
http://home.earthlink.net/~rmarken

[From Bruce Gregory 9980520.1315 ED)]

Rick Marken (980520.1000)

Bruce Gregory (980520.1232 EDT) --

> Nothing is wrong with it [our analysis of RTP], it just doesn't
> tell us what makes RTP different from the system you and Bill
> grew up with.

There is _very_ little difference I can see between RTP and the
system I grew up with. So? Is the PCT analysis of RTP wrong if
it doesn't lead to the conclusion you want?

Just incomplete. But I now understand why. The heart of the RTP process, as
far as the disruptive student is concerned, simply cannot be modeled in PCT.
This is why it remains invisible to you and Bill. It clearly is invisible,
since you cannot see any difference between RTP and the process you grew up
with. In my case, I _do_ see a difference. I am trying to understand it, not
to deny its existence.

Best Offer

[From Bruce Nevin (980520.1610 EDT)]

Rick Marken (980519.2100)--

It only matters whether the coffee maker is a control system
controlling for keeping the coffee inside itself.

Tim Carey (980520.1035) --

[...] you and Bill maintained that coercion was when someone
controlled the other person _regardless_ of the references of the
other person.

[...] The way I said it above it seems like I am
saying that coercion occurs only when the coerced control system
(coffee maker) wants a perceptual variable (location of coffee)
in a _different_ state (inside itself) than that desired by the
coercer control system (outside). In order to prevent this
misconception, I should have said:

It only matters whether the coffee maker is a control system
controlling for the same perceptual variable (location of the
coffee) as you (the coercer).

It sounds like coercion is simply a limiting case of conflict where control
by one control system overwhelms control by the other. However, I have some
methodological and conceptual problems with this account.

The phrase "same perceptual variable" glosses over the issue of what it is
for perceptual variables in two different control systems to be the same.
The place where they are the same is some physical variable X in the
environment. We have only our perceptions of X, but the actual point at
which the two control systems conflict is not in their perceptions of X, it
is in X itself, whatever it is. For purposes of modelling, it is an
attribute of something in the environment as measured and quantified by an
observer.

As observer, it is precisely the conflict between A and B over X that
enables us to conclude that some perception A(x) that A is controlling is a
perception of the same environmental X as some perception B(x) that B is
controlling. (Cooperation over X, e.g. verbal agreement about it or
interacting consistently with one another over it, is another basis for
concluding that we are perceiving the same X.) We assume that X is actually
what is given by O(x), the observer's perception of X. But to say that A
and B are controlling the same perceptual variable is not possible even in
a model.

Look at a diagram:

                              >
                              > r
      [CS A] V
                    +----->COMP ----> e
                    > >
           p = A(X) | |
                    > >
  - - - - - - Fi - - - - - -Fo - - - - - -
                    ^ |
                    > >o(A)
                    > ___ |
                    +------| |<-----+
          d--------------->| X |-------------+ [ENVIRONMENT]
            +--------------|___| |
            > ^ |
   p = B(X) | | o(B) |
- - - - Fi - - - | - - Fi - F0 - - -
            > ` | ' | ^
            > ` | ' p = O(X)| |
            V ` | ' V |
           COMP----e--->Fo--+ ' COMP----e
            ^ ' ' ^
            > r ' ' | r
            > ' ' |
      [CS B] ' ' [OBSERVER]
                         ' '
                         ' '

There is no way, even in a model, to say that the three perceptual input
signals A(X), B(X) and O(X) are the same. You are talking about an
environmental variable X as measured from the observer's perceptual input
O(x). OK, an environment variable that the two control systems want to
perceive as having different values. But there's more than just careless
use of terms that bothers me here.

Suppose A wants the door shut because it's supposed to be shut and B wants
to open it enough to let in a breeze. Already, X is different for A and B.
For A, X is the doorway being filled up and closed off with the door; for
B, X is the feeling and smell of the spring breeze. By asking and Testing
we can determine that they are in fact not controlling the same perceptual
variable at all. This of course is the basis for finding win-win solutions
to conflicts, instead of e.g. assuming that the bone of contention is the
physical locus of conflict (position of door, 20 degrees vs. 0 degrees).
The observer can quantify their conflict in terms of the position of the
door because some X in the environment that the observer perceives as the
position of the door is the place where the effects of B's efforts and the
effects of A's efforts come in contact in the environment.

The earlier claim is that the coercer is controlling an aspect of the
behavior of the coerced system. Suppose that A is coercing B. The claim has
been understood to mean that A has a reference perception for B's
behavioral outputs, o(B).

                              >
                              > r
      [CS A] V
                    +----->COMP ----> e
                    > >
           p = A(X) | |
                    > >
  - - - - - - Fi - - - - - -Fo - - - - - -
                    ^ |
                    > >
                    > ___ |
                    > > > >
          d---------)----->| X |------)------+ [ENVIRONMENT]
            +-------)------|___| | |
            > > ^ | |
   p = B(X) | +-------)-o(B)<---+ |
- - - - Fi - - - | - - Fi - F0 - - -
            > ` | ' | ^
            > ` | ' p = O(X)| |
            V ` | ' V |
           COMP----e--->Fo--+ ' COMP----e
            ^ ' ' ^
            > r ' ' | r
            > ' ' |
      [CS B] ' ' [OBSERVER]

In this diagram, A is controlling a perception of some observable aspect of
o(B) such as B's arm position, while B is controlling a perception of X.
(The observer is presumably controlling perceptions of o(B) and o(A)
without any error output. I have not shown that. There's a question about
this at the end.)

Of course, what they are controlling might change. In particular, B might
shift to controlling some aspect of o(A), I suppose as part of a sequence
perception of which controlling a perception of X might be a later step.

A might also have a reference perception for X, so that A and B are in
conflict over X. In particular, A might require o(B) as a "tool" for
controlling a perception of X.

Rick, your claim was that the effect of o(B) in the environment is an
aspect of the behavior of B. In this way, you could say that the coercer,
A, is controlling an aspect of the behavior of the coerced system, B, even
when A is only controlling a perception of X but is overpowering B's
control of a perception of X. I think this meaning for the words "an aspect
of behavior" -- meaning any variable in B's control loop -- has been
confusing.

I suppose any irresistable disturbance to B's control of B(X) that is due
to o(A) constitutes coercion of B by A. The disturbance might be

1. An environmental effect of o(A) on qi and thence on B(X) that the
observer sees as A's effect on X.

2. An environmental effect of o(A) on qi and thence on B(X) that the
observer sees as A's effect on B's ability to sense the state of X (putting
a blindfold on B, injecting B with novocaine, turning out the light).

3. An environmental effect of o(A) on qo as it results from o(B) that the
observer sees as A's effect on B's ability to affect the state of X
(holding B's arm).

4. A's depriving B of some environmental contingency such as a tool that B
would use to affect the state of X.

This broad definition does seem to follow from understanding behavior to be
the control of perception, and coercion as affecting not just behavioral
outputs such as o(B) or those aspects of o(B) that an observer perceives.
Under this definition, your demo does model coercion where o(A) affects the
same environmental value X that o(B) is intended to affect but cannot. You
know it is the same value because it is a product of the program that you
wrote. Mostly that cannot be said of environmental variables.

Saying that the coercer and the coerced control the same perceptual
variable is just sloppy talk. They can't.

Imagine now coercion situation in a typical school. John, a teacher, is
controlling perceptions of his students learning foo. Freddy is controlling
a perception of talking to Alan, another student. This does not satisfy
John's controlled perception of Freddy learning foo. So far we have
different perceptions being controlled, learning foo and talking to Alan.
We could press down through the hierarchy looking at the means for talking
to Alan vs. the means for learning foo until we found some particular
variables for which John and Freddy are controlling different values. But I
think it's more accurate to say that they are controlling different
perceptions entirely. The teacher wants Freddy to control a perception of
learning XYZ at the moment (and of learning in school in general). The
conflict is over what perceptions Freddy should control. The coercer and
the coerced do not have different values for the same variable (as
identified by an observer) unless you search down through the hierarchy to
the particular point where John's means of coercing Freddy actually or
potentially come in contact, in the environment, with Freddy's means of
controlling a perception of talking to Alan.

As I understand it, in an RTP school John the teacher is controlling a
perception of none of his students being prevented from learning XYZ.
Freddy can be controlling some perception other than learning XYZ so long
as his doing so does not interfere with any other student learning XYZ. If
any student pays attention to what Freddy is doing, it's a distraction. If
any student is unable to see or hear John, it's a disruption. The conflict,
I expect, is usually about unintended side effects of Freddy's controlling
something. It could even be a side effect of Freddy's way of controlling
learning XYZ (talking to himself, say). Of course Freddy could be
controlling a perception of disrupting John's teaching or of somebody's
learning, and as noted this could be as means of controlling a perception
of getting out of class to the RTP room. I just suspect that that is less
common than unintended side effects. This is consistent with my experience
that growing up involves getting better at managing side effects of
control. But in the RTP situation it is no easier to make out the coercer
and the coerced controlling the same variable in conflict, especially if
the conflict is over unintended side effects.

To model conflict and coercion we have to get beyond the case of two
control systems controlling the same perceptual variable with different
values. It is too simplistic. The modeller wants a single variable at the
crux of conflict. That's like Nasrudin and his house key.

Nasrudin's friend found him crawling around the sidewalk under the
streetlamp. "What are you doing?"
"I'm looking for my house key."
"I'll help you."
After half an hour, the friend grew impatient.
"Are you sure you lost it here? We've scoured every inch!"
"No. I lost it over there in that dark alley."
"Then what are we looking here for?!"
"There's more light here!"

We might say that the Observer's lack of output o(O) is due to zero gain,
but we have suggested zero gain as an index of zero attention. I know
you've said something about this, Bill, but my head is still thick about
it. As a guess a copy of perceptual input might be used as the value of r
so there's never any error, a kind of corollary of the imagination loop
perhaps used for learning or memorizing, but there's probably a simpler
mechanism I'm just not getting.

  Bruce Nevin

[From Tim Carey (980520.1650)]

[From Rick Marken (980519.2100)]

It only matters whether the coffee maker is a control system
controlling for the same perceptual variable (location of the
coffee) as you (the coercer).

This sounds like the PCT definition of conflict. What's the difference
between conflict and coercion from a PCT perspective?

> Yippee

I hope it was fun while it lasted;-)

I'm used to my experiences of ecstasy being brief :wink:

Cheers,

Tim

[From Bruce Nevin (980520.1657 EDT)]

Rick Marken (980520.0845) to Bruce Gregory (980520.10000 EDT)--

Coercion exists when you and
the cruise control are _controlling_ the same variable (speed of
car). When both you and the cruise control want the same speed,
you will do nothing to change the speed; when you and the cruise
control want different speeds, you will so whatever is necessary
(press the gas, press the brake, pull the emergency brake, run up
an embankment) to change the speed. You are coercing in both
cases because you are controlling the speed of the car in both
cases. It's not pressing the gas pedal that is coercive; it is
controlling the same variable (speed) that the coercee (cruise
control) is controlling _and_ having enough power to force that
variable to any value you want, regardless of what value the
coercee might want it at.

It follows that a driver of a car equipped with cruise control is *always*
coercing the cruise control system, even when a driver is letting the
cruise control system govern the car's speed, and even when cruise control
is not turned on.

This is an example of a technical redefinition of a common term that
departs from common usage because of the logic underlying the technical
definition.

This is a simple, straightforward PCT - based observation about
the behavior of RTP practitioners. It is a _testable_ observation:
if the RTP practitioners are controlling for "disruptiveness in
class" then they will act to oppose disturbances to this perception
(such as when a kid disrupts class). This seems like basic PCT
to me; is there some reason to believe that this analysis of
RTP practitioner behavior is off the mark?

Just the usual caveat that what appears to the observer to be the
controlled variable might not actually be. For example, it may look like
the teacher is controlling a perception of "disruptiveness in class" and
the controlled perception may be "students are learning what I am teaching
them." It may look like teacher and student are in conflict over
controlling two values of the same variable, when in fact it is a side
effect of the student's control (talking with Alan) that is a disturbance
to the teacher's control (Alan is learning).

  Bruce Nevin

[From Bruce Gregory 99805.1739 EDT)]

Bruce Nevin (980520.1657 EDT)]

It follows that a driver of a car equipped with cruise control is *always*
coercing the cruise control system, even when a driver is letting the
cruise control system govern the car's speed, and even when cruise control
is not turned on.

I believe that if the cruise control is not turned on it is a virtual
control system and as such immune from being coerced, but I am probably
wrong.

Best Offer

[From Bill Powers (980520.0752 MDT)]

Tim Carey (980520.1035)--

Rick:

No It only matters whether the coffee maker is a control system
controlling for keeping the coffee inside itself. If it is, when
you successfully take the coffee out of the coffee maker you are
coercing coffee from the coffee maker.

Tim:

But Rick this is in complete contradiction to earlier statements you and
Bill have made on cercion. It is precisely this point that I have been
arguing for since the beginning. At the beginning of this you and Bill
maintained that coercion was when someone controlled the other person
_regardless_ of the references of the other person. Now your saying that
it's coercion when someone acts in opposition to the references of someone
else.
Yippee.

You're really trying hard to win this one, aren't you? Don't celebrate too
soon.

The criterion for coercion that Rick and I (and I don't know how many
others) are using is that the coercer successfully control a variable that
another system is also trying to control. The particular reference level in
the other system is irrelevant under this criterion, so it doesn't matter
whether the coercer and coercee have the same or different reference
levels. Since the coercer is the stronger of the two systems, only the
coercer's reference level determines the state of the controlled variable.
The coercee's reference level has no meaningful effect on the same
controlled variable; the coercer simply adjusts his output to cancel any
effects of the coercee's output. As the coercer's reference level changes,
the controlled variable will change right along with it, perhaps
momentarily passing through a value that matches the coercee's reference
level, but only accidentally and momentarily.

I wonder about something, Tim. Adults often coerce children, using direct
force, harsh words, withdrawal of approval, or even painful slaps or
pinches, into showing behavior that the adult wants to see. Eventually, in
most cases, the child starts to show this behavior (like saying please and
thank you) spontaneously, so the adult no longer has to keep constant watch
and be ready to deal with infractions of the rule. Or at least that's the
ideal of people who use coercion to teach good behavior.

There are two ways to think about this result. You can say that the child
finally learned the right behavior and no longer needs to be coerced into
showing it, or you can say that the child is producing this behavior to
keep the coercer from forcing, yelling, disapproving, or hurting the child.

The first view is the one that your idea of coercion supports: if the adult
is not actually applying force, yelling, disapproving, or hurting the
child, and the child is doing what the adult wants, no coercion is going on.

The second view is the one my idea of coercion supports. Under my
definition, coercion is going on as long as the adult is present and
monitoring the child's behavior, ready to apply corrective actions whenever
a deviation from the right behavior occurs. Clearly, this picture is not as
rosy as the other one. Under this picture, the child is behaving correctly
only out of fear of what the adult will do if the right behavior is not
shown. Under the first view, the child has actually learned to behave right
all by itself, while under the second view, the child is behaving right
only to control the adult's behavior.

Which is the right view? Either one could be right in a given case. So how
could we tell which is right for a given child?

The simplest test is to remove the adult (all adults, of course) and see
what the child does when there is no possibility of some adult correcting
the behavior. When boys are playing basketball together, do they say
"Please pass me the ball ... thank you"? Or do they reserve this kind of
behavior for situations in which an adult is present?

I'm sure we would find that some children behave more or less the same
whether an adult is present or not. But others will drastically change
their behavior with no adults in sight. The question that needs to be
answered is the role coercion plays in determining which of these outcomes
happens. If it turned out that children taught good behavior through
coercion behave very differently with no adults present, and those taught
with as little coercion as possible do not behave differently when adults
are present, then my picture of coercion would be supported. On the other
hand, if children taught with coercion really "learned their lesson" so
they behaved about the same with or without an adult present, then your
picture would be supported.

What do you think would happen?

Best,

Bill P.

[From Rick Marken (980520.1600)]

Bruce Nevin (980520.1610 EDT)--

There is no way, even in a model, to say that the three perceptual
input signals A(X), B(X) and O(X) are the same.

Yes there is. It's called The Test for the Controlled Variable.
O(X) is a hypothesis about the variable A and B are controlling.
Let's say you guess that O(X) = X/2. If every disturbance to X/2
is resisted by A and B then you know that X/2 is the variable
controlled by both A and B.

Suppose A wants the door shut because it's supposed to be shut
and B wants to open it enough to let in a breeze. Already, X is
different for A and B.

Not at all. X is a physical variable anyway. O (X) (the hypothetical
controlled perception, angle of door) is still the same for both
A and B. They are controlling this perception to achieve different
higher level perceptual goals (following the "door shut" rule vs
getting a breeze) but the conflict exists because the systems are
trying to achieve these goals by getting the same perception (angle
of door) into two different states. That's how conflict works.

By asking and Testing we can determine that they are in fact not
controlling the same perceptual variable at all. This of course is
the basis for finding win-win solutions to conflicts

Only in the fevered dreams of the "different worlds" crowd;-)

Try setting up a model of conflict like the one you describe here
verbally -- where the control systems are not controlling the
same perceptual variable. I would certainly like to see what
you have in mind.

Saying that the coercer and the coerced control the same perceptual
variable is just sloppy talk. They can't.

I think I need a mathematical proof of this one. The diagrams
don't help. My intuition is telling me that conflict _always_
involves the control of the same perceptual variable. This is
certainly happening in the "Different Worlds" demo (as you note
yourself). So what changes when we go from demo to real life?

Imagine now coercion situation in a typical school. John, a
teacher, is controlling perceptions of his students learning foo.
Freddy is controlling a perception of talking to Alan, another
student. This does not satisfy John's controlled perception of
Freddy learning foo. So far we have different perceptions being
controlled, learning foo and talking to Alan.

How are they controlled? You left out the coercion part. To control
his perception of "learning foo" the teacher has to get Freddy
to stop talking; to control his perception of talking to Alan
Freddy has to keep talking. Do you see a perception that might be
in contention here? I'm thinking it's "talking". The teacher wants
this perception at 0, Freddy wants it greater than 0. That's where
the conflict exists -- and it will be coercive conflict if the teacher
is strong enough to stop Freddy's talking.

The coercer and the coerced do not have different values for the
same variable...unless you search down through the hierarchy

Wasn't much of a search. Just one level down (from "learning foo")
and we find the perceptual variable that both paries want in
different states.

To model conflict and coercion we have to get beyond the case of two
control systems controlling the same perceptual variable with
different values.

I'm afraid I am not convinced by your diagrams or your rhetoric.
I could be convinced by a working model of conflict that goes
beyond two (or more) control systems controlling the same perceptual
variable.

Best

Rick

···

--
Richard S. Marken Phone or Fax: 310 474-0313
Life Learning Associates e-mail: rmarken@earthlink.net
http://home.earthlink.net/~rmarken

[From Bill Powers (980520.1753 MDT)]

Rick Marken (980520.0845)--

Is it fair to say that whenever two systems attempt to control
the same perceptual variable coercion occurs unless neither
system controls successfully?

Not necessarily. If both systems happen to want the controlled
variable at _exactly_ the same reference level then both systems
will be controlling successfully (no error in either system).

I have to disagree (hold the presses: MAJOR SCHISM IN PCT, POWER STRUGGLE
BEHIND SCENES). If you test for control in the usual way, by attempting to
perturb the controlled variable, the coercing system will vary its output
and quantitatively cancel the disturbance. The coerced system's output may
vary but it will hit the stops (it runs out of output before the coercing
system does). It will be quite clear which is the coercing and which is the
coerced system. Might be worth actually running a model to demonstrated this.

Best,

Bill P.

[From Bill Powers (980520.1749 MDT)]

Bruce Gregory 9980520.1052 EDT)--

Is it fair to say that whenever two systems attempt to control the same
perceptual variable coercion occurs unless neither system controls
successfully?

I register a yes vote.

Best,

Bill P.

[From Bill Powers (980520.1800 MDT)]

Bruce Gregory (980520.1232 EDT)--

Therefore I am constantly coercing the speed control and the thermostat in
my living room. Whether or not I do anything, because I _could_ do
something. Parents constantly coerce their children and the government
constantly coerces the citizenry. Looks like the conspiracy folks are right
after all. There may be no black helicopters right now, but there could be
if the government decided to make it so.

No, you're not. To coerce either one, you must be continually monitoring
the controlled variable, and acting on it automatically whenever it
deviates from your reference level for it. In other words, you must be in
the role of an active control system, not just a system that could be
brought into existence if you wanted to.

Are you on something that is interfering with your short-term memory?

Best,

Bill P.

[From Bill Powers (980520.1808 MDT)]

Bruce Gregory 9980520.1315 ED)]

(writing to Rick):
The heart of the RTP process, as
far as the disruptive student is concerned, simply cannot be modeled in PCT.

I guess I finally have to say it. That is a pretty stupid remark.

This is why it remains invisible to you and Bill. It clearly is invisible,
since you cannot see any difference between RTP and the process you grew up
with.

You haven't any idea what system Rick grew up with.

Bill P.

[From Rick Marken (980520.1730)]

Someone:

Is it fair to say that whenever two systems attempt to control
the same perceptual variable coercion occurs unless neither
system controls successfully?

Me:

Not necessarily. If both systems happen to want the controlled
variable at _exactly_ the same reference level then both systems
will be controlling successfully (no error in either system).

Bill Powers (980520.1753 MDT) --

I have to disagree

I have to agree with your disagreement. I think I've been going
nuts with all these weird questions about "is this coercion;
is that coercion". I think I must have had that experience where,
after hearing the same phrase over and over again, it ends up
having no meaning.

When I re-read the question above carefully (this time actually
extracting the meaning) I see that it is asking whether there
is coercion when neither party to a conflict is getting what
they want. Since coercion occurs when one party to a conflict can
get what he or she wants no matter _what_ the other party wants,
it is clear that the answer to the question is "yes, there is no
coercion" when neither system controls successfully.

(hold the presses: MAJOR SCHISM IN PCT, POWER STRUGGLE
BEHIND SCENES).

PCT SCHISM NARROWLY AVERTED: GURU BRINGS DAZED FOLLOWER
TO SENSES.

Best

Rick

···

--

Richard S. Marken Phone or Fax: 310 474-0313
Life Learning Associates e-mail: rmarken@earthlink.net
http://home.earthlink.net/~rmarken/

[From Bill Powers (980520.2052 MDT)]

Bruce Nevin (980520.1610 EDT)--

The phrase "same perceptual variable" glosses over the issue of what it is
for perceptual variables in two different control systems to be the same.
The place where they are the same is some physical variable X in the
environment. We have only our perceptions of X, but the actual point at
which the two control systems conflict is not in their perceptions of X, it
is in X itself, whatever it is. For purposes of modelling, it is an
attribute of something in the environment as measured and quantified by an
observer.

I think you're trying to get too complicated about this. If I am
controlling for having lunch, you can rather easily find that out to your
own satisfaction, can't you? And if you interfere with that, you shouldn't
have a lot of difficulty in figuring out that we have a conflict, and what
it's about. A third party, observing all the interactions and listening to
the arguments, can probably get a pretty good working idea of the problem,
and maybe even come up with a solution that will satisfy everyone. Let's
not make an ivory tower game out of PCT. Epistemology, in the final
analysis (don't I wish) is for wankers.

The problem with your diagram is that it contains too few variables by a
large factor, and too few levels. Our perceptual variables and input
functions are the result of long periods of experimentation and
interaction, in which we find out what is orthogonal to what and thus
independently controllable. We learn how controlling one perception affects
other perceptions. By the time we're adults, we'd done a lot of
triangulating on reality, and when we think we're controlling the same
things, I think it's very likely that we ARE controlling very nearly the
same things in some sufficient sense. Best just to accept that we can do
the Test, we can learn to understand what other people are controlling, and
somehow we can share a world sufficiently to talk about it and do science
in it. Exactly how we do that is a long way beyond us right now. Let's
stick with the simple stuff.

Best,

Bill P.

[From Bruce Nevin (980521.0000 EDT)]

I thought the Test identified a perceptual variable p within the Tested
control system. I see now that it might identify a measurable variable qi
corresponding directly to p, but more probably it measures an environmental
variable as perceived by the observer which is presumed to correspond
directly to qi.

Rick Marken (980520.1600)--

Me (980520.1610 EDT)

There is no way, even in a model, to say that the three perceptual
input signals A(X), B(X) and O(X) are the same.

Rick:

Yes there is. It's called The Test for the Controlled Variable.
O(X) is a hypothesis about the variable A and B are controlling.
Let's say you guess that O(X) = X/2. If every disturbance to X/2
is resisted by A and B then you know that X/2 is the variable
controlled by both A and B.

O(X) is the observer's perception of an environmental variable X. The Test
identifies X in terms of O's perceptions of it O(X). The assumption that
O(X) = X = B(X) = A(X) is just that, an assumption. That is one of the
methodological issues about which I have misgivings. A successful model is
the best warrant for the assumption that we have.

I see now that you are not talking about three perceptual input signals.
You are talking about one environmental variable and an assumption that
three parties (A, B, and the observer O) are all controlling perceptions of
it. Whatever their respective perceptual signals may be (and they are
probably not identical rates of neural firing!), they correspond to the
same environmental variable X.

When A is coercing B you cannot apply the Test to B because B is unable to
control. This is another of the methodological issues that was bothering
me. I don't think I made that clear in that last post, but I have mentioned
it before.

Suppose A wants the door shut because it's supposed to be shut
and B wants to open it enough to let in a breeze. Already, X is
different for A and B.

Not at all. X is a physical variable anyway. O (X) (the hypothetical
controlled perception, angle of door) is still the same for both
A and B. They are controlling this perception to achieve different
higher level perceptual goals (following the "door shut" rule vs
getting a breeze) but the conflict exists because the systems are
trying to achieve these goals by getting the same perception (angle
of door) into two different states. That's how conflict works.

For B, the touch sensations and temperature sensations of the breeze, and
the smells of fresh air, are not higher-level perceptions than the angle of
the door. You must mean that B is controlling a sequence perception (or
even a program perception), something like "open the door and then (in
order to) feel a breeze." Is that what you have in mind?

By asking and Testing we can determine that they are in fact not
controlling the same perceptual variable at all. This of course is
the basis for finding win-win solutions to conflicts

Only in the fevered dreams of the "different worlds" crowd;-)

If A goes up a level above the rule about closed doors and/or B goes up a
level above the particular sequence or program for feeling a breeze they
may find alternative ways to accomplish what the rule is supposed to
accomplish, or another way to get fresh air and a breeze (e.g. open a
window). That's what a win-win solution is about. Does it help you to
understand me if I say MOL instead of win-win?

Try setting up a model of conflict like the one you describe here
verbally -- where the control systems are not controlling the
same perceptual variable. I would certainly like to see what
you have in mind.

I was thinking of the *conflict* between A and B being at the level of the
rule (doors closed) and the sequence or program (how to get some fresh
air). By your definition, of course, this cannot be conflict precisely
because different perceptual variables are involved. The *coercion* (a
particular form of conflict) is at the level of the door angle, which is
the means for controlling their respective higher-level perceptions.

If B has a hand on the doorknob, and A has two hands on B's arm, then the
coercion is on the position of B's arm, which is the means for changing the
angle of the door (which A wants unchanged), which in turn is the means for
controlling their respective higher-level perceptions.

In a drivers education car there is (or used to be) a lever that ran across
from the passenger side to underneath the accelerator pedal. If the student
driver went too fast, the instructor could press on the lever to force the
accelerator pedal up. The conflict is over the speed of the car. The
coercion (a particular form of conflict) is over the angle of the
accelerator pedal, which is a means of changing the speed of the car.

Saying that the coercer and the coerced control the same perceptual
variable is just sloppy talk. They can't.

I think I need a mathematical proof of this one.

No, just sorting out that the conflict and the coercion are typically on
different levels clears most of it up. The rest of it has to do with that
assumption that the observer's perception is the same as the environment
variable is the same as A's perceptual signal is the same as B's perceptual
signal. This is a reasonable working assumption and it is warranted when a
successful model is built and tested. Until I understood this, I was
balking at the shift from environment variable to perceptual signal and the
claim that the perceptual signal in two control systems was identical. This
glib synonymy seemed to me much more careless than what I am used to
hearing from you and Bill.

There is still the problem of identifying what the coerced control system
would be controlling if it weren't coerced. You can't apply the Test
because it's not controlling.

I hope this is clear. Overdue for bed.

  Bruce Nevin

[From Bruce Nevin (980521.0005 EDT)]

[From Rick Marken (980520.1730)]

Someone:

Is it fair to say that whenever two systems attempt to control
the same perceptual variable coercion occurs unless neither
system controls successfully?

Me:

Not necessarily. If both systems happen to want the controlled
variable at _exactly_ the same reference level then both systems
will be controlling successfully (no error in either system).

Bill Powers (980520.1753 MDT) --

I have to disagree

I have to agree with your disagreement. I think I've been going
nuts with all these weird questions about "is this coercion;
is that coercion". I think I must have had that experience where,
after hearing the same phrase over and over again, it ends up
having no meaning.

When I re-read the question above carefully (this time actually
extracting the meaning) I see that it is asking whether there
is coercion when neither party to a conflict is getting what
they want. Since coercion occurs when one party to a conflict can
get what he or she wants no matter _what_ the other party wants,
it is clear that the answer to the question is "yes, there is no
coercion" when neither system controls successfully.

Sorry. Dense I guess. Bear with me while I step through this.

A and B are both controlling X.

1. They have different values for X.
A. If one is overwhelmingly stronger, there is coercion:
    one gets the desired value of X, the other doesn't.
B. Otherwise, there is conflict:
    neither gets the desired value of X.

2. They have the same value for X.
A. If one is overwhelmingly stronger, there is coercion:
    If the other ever wanted a different value, tough luck.
B. Otherwise, if their values for X ever diverge there is conflict:
    neither would get the desired value of X.

2A is the case that seems least intuitive and causes the most contention. I
think this is what Bruce Gregory had in mind. And I think you slipped from
the PCT definition of coercion to a common sense intuition about coertion
of the (2A) type. Am I right?

In the PCT definition of coercion it doesn't matter if the coerced system
is controlling the accepted value of X with no error. Because any deviation
from that value would be overwhelmingly resisted that system is still being
coerced.

You're going to have trouble making sense (2A) of coercion stick. It will
be a continual source of confusion. Even to the most advanced among us.

  Bruce Nevin

[From Bill Powers (980521.0207 MDT)]

Bruce Nevin (980521.0005 EDT) --

Sorry. Dense I guess. Bear with me while I step through this.

A and B are both controlling X.

1. They have different values for X. [reference values, I presume]
A. If one is overwhelmingly stronger, there is coercion:
         one gets the desired value of X, the other doesn't.
B. Otherwise, there is conflict:
         neither gets the desired value of X.

Fine so far.

2. They have the same [reference] value for X.
A. If one is overwhelmingly stronger, there is coercion:
   If the other ever wanted a different value, tough luck.
B. Otherwise, if their values for X ever diverge there is conflict:
   neither would get the desired value of X.

2A is the case that seems least intuitive and causes the most contention. I
think this is what Bruce Gregory had in mind. And I think you slipped from
the PCT definition of coercion to a common sense intuition about coertion
of the (2A) type. Am I right?

Please explain your second point.

Your And Bruce G's presumption is that X is a fixed static value, so if the
two systems have the same reference values for X, they will continue to
have the same reference values for X. If the coercing system's reference
level for X is continuously varying, however (a normal condition), it will
most likely match the other system's reference condition only in passing
and momentarily.

More generally, what do you mean by "the same" reference values? The same
within 50%? 10%? 1%? And what about the actually perceived values? Are they
perceived as the same with a high degree of accuracy? And what if the
reference value actually governs a dynamic pattern, so both systems must
want to experience the identical pattern to avoid conflict?

The likelihood of two systems desiring the same reference value of the same
perception (as translated into environmental variables), even momentarily,
is very low. For this match to persist for some appreciable time is
essentially impossible. Obviously, the closer the control being exerted by
the two systems over X, the less likely is the match to be sufficiently
close to avoid conflict.

So the normal condition would be divergence of the desired values of X.

If X is perceived only categorically, there is room for considerable
variation of the actual environmental variables before either party would
see X as having changed. In effect, the control systems have a large dead
band. In this case, the two systems might experience X as being at the same
value that they both want, and this appearance could continue for some
time. However, the actual state of the environment would be wandering all
the time, because X will appear to change only when a category boundary is
crossed.

I'm not sure how likely this arrangement would be to cause conflict or lead
to coercion. In terms of the external situation, category control is very
loose, so a rather extreme difference of low-level perceptions (or
environmental variables) would be needed to lead to any severe conflict.

In the PCT definition of coercion it doesn't matter if the coerced system
is controlling the accepted value of X with no error. Because any deviation
from that value would be overwhelmingly resisted that system is still being
coerced.

Right.

You're going to have trouble making sense (2A) of coercion stick. It will
be a continual source of confusion. Even to the most advanced among us.

We have three cases:

1. Coercer has different reference level from coercee: X is determined
totally by coercer, coercee's actions do not affect X.

2. Coercer and coercee have same reference level (for at least a while). X
is still determined by coercer, and only the coercer resists disturbances
of X (coercee does not need to act because X remains at reference level).

3. There is no coercer, and control of X is exerted excusively by the coercee.

I consider only case 3 to be free of coercion.

Best,

Bill P.

[From Tim Carey (980521.1820)]

[From Bill Powers (980520.0752 MDT)]

You're really trying hard to win this one, aren't you? Don't celebrate

too

soon.

Nope. I'm not controlling for winning Bill, how would it come to be that
you would even frame up this discussion in terms of winning and losing?

There are two ways to think about this result. You can say that the child
finally learned the right behavior and no longer needs to be coerced into
showing it, or you can say that the child is producing this behavior to
keep the coercer from forcing, yelling, disapproving, or hurting the

child.

The first view is the one that your idea of coercion supports: if the

adult

is not actually applying force, yelling, disapproving, or hurting the
child, and the child is doing what the adult wants, no coercion is going

on.

And now who's putting words into other people's mouths ?? :wink:

I have said all along that ONE of my criteria for coercion to exist would
be that the coercer had intentions for the coercee to behave in a
particular way. THE OTHER criteria is what the intentions of the coercee
are. If they have the same intentions as the coercer it's not coercion, if
they do then it is. So in your example above you would simply ask the
coercee or apply some version of the Test to see what they were controlling
for.

I don't see what's so objectionable about that idea.

a deviation from the right behavior occurs. Clearly, this picture is not

as

rosy as the other one. Under this picture, the child is behaving

correctly

only out of fear of what the adult will do if the right behavior is not
shown.

How do you know that the child is acting out of fear? There is a huge
assumption going on here that if someone is bigger and stronger then the
only reason anyone weaker would do what they wanted them to is out of fear.

Cheers,

Tim

[From Rick Marken (980521.0830)]

Tim Carey (980521.1820)

I have said all along that ONE of my criteria for coercion to
exist would be that the coercer had intentions for the coercee
to behave in a particular way. THE OTHER criteria is what the
intentions of the coercee are. If they [coercees] have the same
intentions as the coercer it's not coercion, if they do then it is.

I don't see what's so objectionable about that idea.

It's objectionable (to me) for so many reasons. Perhaps the
main reason is that it suggests that a coercer is often "doing
what's best" for the coercee; it's a conceit I find very
annoying. In terms of RTP, it suggests that the RTP practitioner
knows what's best for the student; that the RTP practitioner knows
that disruptive students really want to go to the RTC room if
given the "choice" of staying or going; that the RTP practitioner
really cares about what the disruptive student wants (if they
did they'd let them keep disrupting).

I just find this kind of "I know what you [the disruptive student]
want better than you do" attitude extremely annoying, especially
when it's wrapped in the guise of "scientific fact" via reference
to PCT. The RTP practitioner knows what she wants (an environment
where kids can learn the three Rs) and knows a good way to get it
(the RTP "process"). Why get into this self-deception about
thinking that what you are doing is good for the disruptive student?
Who knows if it's good for the disruptive student? It's good for
the educational environment; isn't that good enough?

I also find your definition of coercion objectionable because it
doesn't fit with the facts of what goes on in the coercion process.
First, a real coercer doesn't go to the trouble of trying to find
out what perception the coercee wants. The coercer just makes the
perception happen that she wants. This is certainly true in the RTP
case; the teacher doesn't try to find out what perception the
disruptive student wants; the teacher just makes the perception
she wants (of the disruptive kid not being in class) happen

Second, even if a coercer _did_ go to the trouble of trying to
find out what perception the coercee wants, the coercer would
not make that perception happen for the coercee unless that
perception happened to corresponded _exactly_ to the perception
wanted by the coercer. The RTP teacher wants one perception: no
disruption in class. If the RTP teacher does ask the student
"what do you want?", what the student says is not going to
change the goal of the RTP teacher. If the student says "I want
to dance naked in front of the class" the teacher is not going
to revise her goal from "no disruption in class" to "have Johnny
dance naked in front of class". It doesn't matter what the kid
wants, the RTP teacher is going to get the perception she wants:
no disruption in class.

Third, as Bill Powers' (980521.0207 MDT) notes in his nice reply to
Bruce Nevin (980521.0005 EDT):

The likelihood of two systems desiring the same reference value
of the same perception (as translated into environmental variables),
even momentarily, is very low. For this match to persist for some
appreciable time is essentially impossible.

If the coercer makes no systematic effort to try to find out what
reference value of a perceptual variable the coercee wants it
is _very_ unlikely that both coercer and coercee will happen to be
controlling for the same referemce value of a perceptual variable
(assuming that the coercer is controlling the same perceptual
_variable_ as the coercee). So even if you (Tim) want to count it
as _non coercion_ when a coercer coerces a perceptual variable to the
reference value desired by the coercee, this is a very _unlikely_,
accidental occurance. RTP provides the teacher with no systematic
methods for determining what perceptual variable a kid is controlling
_or_ at what reference value this variable is being controlled at
at any instant. So RTP is not providing the coercer with the tools
for determining the coercee's reference for a controlled perception.
So even if RTP teachers were taught to try to control for the
perception the kid wants instead of for the perception they (the
teachers) want, they (the teachers) are not taught how to determine
what the kid's reference value for the controlled perceptual variable
is.

And (as Bill notes above) even if the coercer _could_ determine the
reference value of the controlled perceptual variable, this value
is certain to be changing, if only slightly, from moment to moment;
reference values are not static. So even if the RTP teacher were taught
how to determine the reference value for one of the kid's perceptual
variables _and_ the teacher were told to control for bringing that
perceptual variable to the kid's reference value (that is, if the
RTP teacher were taught to be _non-coercive_ in the Tim Carey sense)
the teacher would, in fact, _still_ be coercive (in the Tim Carey
sense) most of the time because the teacher would be controlling
for bringing the perceptual variable to a reference value that is
now obsolete. So, as soon as the "non-coercive" RTP teacher starts
helping the kid get undressed for his naked performance in front of
class the kid's reference for "type of performance" has changed
from "performing naked" to "performing in the teacher's clothes". And
the teacher is coercing (Tim Carey style;-)) again.

Best

Rick

···

--
Richard S. Marken Phone or Fax: 310 474-0313
Life Learning Associates e-mail: rmarken@earthlink.net
http://home.earthlink.net/~rmarken

[From Bill Powers (980521.0924 MDT)]

Bruce Nevin (980521.0000 EDT)--

I thought the Test identified a perceptual variable p within the Tested
control system. I see now that it might identify a measurable variable qi
corresponding directly to p, but more probably it measures an environmental
variable as perceived by the observer which is presumed to correspond
directly to qi.

The variable qi IS a perception in the observer. It is only hypothetically
and theoretically a variable in the environment between organisms (the
theory being the set of physical sciences). And it only theoretically
corresponds to an unobserved perceptual signal inside the other person
(that theory being PCT). The Test does NOT identity a perception in the
other person. It identifies a perception in THE OBSERVER which the observer
is testing to see if it is under control by another organism. PCT explains
how qi can be under control by supplying a model claimed to represent the
internal organization of the other organism, the one acting on qi and
presumed (subject to test) to be sensing it. But none of the elements of
that model is directly observable (although, given technological advances,
they will some day be observable).