[Martin Lewitt Dec 6, 2010 1731 MST]
[From Rick Marken (2010.12.06.0950)]
So many Martins, so little time.
Martin Lewitt (Dec 5,
2010 1503 MST)–
You stated that wealth disparity was lower in 1943-1980,
which meant that you interpreted your graph as showing
that.
Yes, it showed it quite clearly.
I stated that given the
greater wealth today, that situation was hardly preferable.
That makes no sense to me at all. You mean lower wealth
disparity was not preferable because there was less wealth
back in 1943-1980?
I don't think you truly
doubt that wealth is greater today, or believe that I need
to reproduce an inflation adjusted GDP graph to show it.
Of course wealth is greater today than it was in 1980, just as
it was greater in 1943 than it was in 1900. This is completely
independent of wealth disparity. Wealth generally increases
over time (as does the technical characteritics of the goods
and services themselves). It’s the rate of increase that tends
to vary and the distribution of that largesse.
For much of human existence wealth did not increase over
generational time scales, so lets not take this for granted.
Your conclusion made
linear assumptions about wealth.
The wealth disparity data makes no such assumption.
I don't assume that the
disparity between a billionaire and a middle class person
today who both have access to internet, sports packages and
scores of cable or satellite channels, DVRs, a suite of
hypertension, cholesterol and erectile disfunction drugs and
cellular phones, is greater than between a millionaire and
middle class person 4 decades ago, despite 3 orders of
magnitude between billionaire and millionaire in nominal or
inflation adjusted dollars.
So does this mean that the wealth disparity that existed in
1929 was actually bigger than the wealth disparity now? And
that the lower wealth disparity in 1960 was bigger than it is
now for the same reason? I think you are just trying to make
the data compatible with your references: control in action.
it doesn't mean that the disparities were bigger then, just that
those positions are possibly defensible, given hedonic
considerations. Despite charts of inflation adjusted dollars, the
wealth disparity between a poor American and an average sub-Saharan
African may well be greater than that between the poor American and
the billionaires.
If you were really making a good faith
effort to understand a nonlinear system, you would at
least try to account for more than just couple variables,
and especially include the variables that the competing
hypotheses contend might be relevant.
The correlations between variables that I report are
descriptive statistics. The positive correlation between top
marginal tax rate and growth rate is simply an observation,
not a system analysis. If that observation is inconsistent
with your “model” of the nonlinear system that you presume the
economy to be then it behooves you (not me) to show why that
observation is misleading (just as we have shown that the lack
of correlation between input and output in a tracking task is
misleading).
I agree that the positive correlation between taxes and
growth may be an artifact of system characteristics
(nonlinearities, etc) but I have never been shown what those
system characteristics are and, more important, how they can
account for this observation. If you know why this observation
happens you should demonstrate why it happens (just as I have
demonstrated why the low correlation between input and output
happens in a tracking task).
I don't make the simplistic assumption that
macro-economic data over a period in which some of the
variables considered relevant didn’t vary and many other
variables such as development of various technologies and
geo-political changes likely had a confounding influence
that a couple conincidental correlations are decisive.
Again, I'm not making any assumptions. I'm making
observations. I have observed a fairly strong positive
relationship between top marginal tax rate and growth rate
(and a fairly strong negative correlation between top marginal
tax rate and unemployment).
You are intellectually dishonest. How "strong" are you going to
argue the “negative correlation” to be? You’ve already
acknowledged on February 21s of this year:
"As you say, reducing the number of degrees of freedom for the
statistical test, as Martin suggests based on the fact that the
series is autocorrelated, simply makes all the correlations not
statistically significant, which makes my point: I can find no
evidence for the claim that lowering taxes is associated with an
increase in growth. "
So you acknowledge the lack of statistical significance, the
nonlinearities and presumably if pressed would also have to
acknowledge confounding variables, yet you repeat the same invalid
points every few months.
Even if I hadn't lived through those times, it wouldn't take much
research to see there were other things going on which had impacts
on economic activity, and some policies which didn’t change over
that time span that put unnecessary instability and risk into the
economy.
-- Martin L
···
On 12/6/2010 10:52 AM, Richard Marken wrote: