Controlled Variables (was Re: d, r. and q0)

[From Rick Marken (2002.09.26.0920)]

Bill Powers (2002.09.26.0425 MDT)--

I think you make great points in this post, especially the point about most of the
variance in observed behavior (when we see behavior changing) being the result of
changes in references.

But I think we're getting a bit off point. This thread started when Bill Williams
(UMKC 24 September 2002 12:33) asked the following:

So, my question for you would be how would you justify from a control theory
perspective an argument that external circumstance is the cause of behavior.

In the process of answering this question I realized that we have sometimes
characterized one of the "messages" of PCT as "Behavior is not caused by external
circumstances". As I was constructing my reply to Bill W. I realized that this
can be a confusing message because behavior certainly can be seen and described
(informally, ignoring the philosophical objections based on the existence of many
simultaneous functional relationships between independent variables and the
dependent variable) as being caused by disturbances to controlled variables.
What control theory shows is that the "causal" path from environment to behavior
runs through the environment, in particular through the controlled variable, not
through the organism. So these "causal" relationships can only be _understood_ in
terms of _controlled variables_, a concept that doesn't even exist in conventional
studies of behavior. So the clearest message of PCT is not that "There is no
causal relationship between behavior and environment" but, rather, "An observed
causal relationship between behavior and environment can only be understood once
the controlled variable has been identified".

Best regards

Rick

···

---
Richard S. Marken, Ph.D.
The RAND Corporation
PO Box 2138
1700 Main Street
Santa Monica, CA 90407-2138
Tel: 310-393-0411 x7971
Fax: 310-451-7018
E-mail: rmarken@rand.org

[From Rick Marken (2002.09.26.0920)]

Bill Powers (2002.09.26.0425 MDT)--

I think you make great points in this post, especially the point about most of

the

variance in observed behavior (when we see behavior changing) being the result

of

changes in references.

But I think we're getting a bit off point. This thread started when Bill

Williams

(UMKC 24 September 2002 12:33) asked the following:

> So, my question for you would be how would you justify from a control theory
> perspective an argument that external circumstance is the cause of behavior?

I am waiting on Fred's reply to my attempt to answer his question, but I have
been following the discussion between you and Bill Powers. Clearly an
environmental disturbance is causally connected to an organism's output. The
rubber band experiement demostrates this much. And other experiements
numerically show a very high coorelation between a disturbance and an organism's
ouput. But there is little connection between a distrubance and the controlled
variable. It took me a while to see what, if I understand in the way in which it
is intended, when you say, the effect of a disturbance proceeds through the
environment rather than the organism. But, following the discussion, I think I
now see that my question to Rick may have been ambigious. Because,... I don't
think the phrase "cause of behavior" has a clear referent. Does it mean the
organisms output? or is it the values which the controlled variable takes on? or
What?? In retrospect, I think what I had in mind was the values for the
controlled variable. Because,... as I understand it the controlled variable is
in an idealized analysis entirely independent of environmental disturbances.

So, I think my question needs to be reformulated before it can be answered
unambigiously.

Bill Williams

···

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[From Rick Marken (2002.09.26.2220)]

I am waiting on Fred's reply to my attempt to answer his question, but

I have

been following the discussion between you and Bill Powers. Clearly an
environmental disturbance is causally connected to an organism's

output. The

rubber band experiement demostrates this much. And other experiements
numerically show a very high coorelation between a disturbance and an

organism's

ouput. But there is little connection between a distrubance and the

controlled

variable.

This is an interesting point. Actually, there is a connection between
disturbance (d) and controlled variable (qi), in the sense that there is
a functional relationship between these variables. In the simplest case
qi is a function of both output (o) and disturbance (d): qi = f(o) +
g(d). But when control is good it _looks like_ there is no functional
(or causal) relationship between disturbance (d) and controlled variable
(qi) because f(o) ~ -g(d).

I think I
now see that my question to Rick may have been ambigious. Because,...

I don't

think the phrase "cause of behavior" has a clear referent.

Right. The word "behavior" is ambiguous, a fact that is made clear by
PCT. That's why my discussions of PCT, such as those in _Mind Readings_
and _More Mind Readings_, begin by asking and answering the question
"What is behavior? It is in the analysis of the nature of behavior
itself that PCT starts to diverge from conventional behavioral science.
Behavior involves at least three variables: actions (o), controlled
results of actions (qi) and irrelevant side effects of action. If this
distinction is not clearly understood and always kept in mind there is
really no easy way to make progress in discussions with conventional
behavioral scientists about "the causes of behavior".

Best regards

Rick

···

On Thu, 26 Sep 2002 23:04:48 +0300, William Williams <w.d.williams@EMAIL.RO> wrote:
--
Richard S. Marken
MindReadings.com
marken@mindreadings.com
310 474-0313

[From Bill Williams 27 September 2002 1:00 AM CST]

[From Rick Marken (2002.09.26.2220)]

Right. The word "behavior" is ambiguous, a fact that is made clear by
PCT.

OK. Now maybe that things are "clear" we are closer to being able to answer the
question about "behavior," environmental disturbances and other fundamental
misconceptions that have been lingering on.

I've come to the conclusion that: I since I choose my reference levels, and I
also choose my experience ( a la William JAmes Principles of Psychology p. 402)
then I am in a position to choose the magnitude of the errors I percieve. This
can be expressed in a variation on an old and familiar theme: "I see you have
choosen to hurt."

It was after coming to this understanding that I reached the conclusion that
the people who think Rick is so terrible and don't come to the CSG meetings
because they don't like Rick were making a mistake. They were claiming, in
effect, that Rick hurt them. Rick they've said is a "bully." But, all Rick
has ever done is talk. There's not the slightest hint that Rick's talk has
ever contained anything remotely suggesting a physical threat to anyone. So, if
Rick poses a threat, it is a question of people's self-regard rather than their
bodily well being that is involved. That's when I reached the conclusion that
the reason they were experiencing pain was the result of a choice they had
made. Now, I'm not saying that there can't be some other basis upon which to
judge Rick. But, it appears to me that one, and by far the most prominent
comlaint about Rick is based upon reasoning that I now belive is fallacious.
Despite what many people think, I regard the belief that conversational level
soundwaves and facial expressions can hurt people without their consent as
magical.

The "hate Rick club" mistake has a counterpart in the mistake that Rick makes.

Rick once claimed that the glee of those who supported the World Trade
Center attack was a crime worse than the murders of innocent people. So, poor
deluded villagers hopping up and down with glee is a worse crime than actual
murder? When what he was saying was pointed out to him Rick realized that this
wasn't quite right. But, it is clear that Rick is still thinks that an absurd
expression of opinion in a remote Arab village "causes" him pain-- maybe not
worse than the attack itself, but never-the-less severe pain. So, if we believe
Rick, he is under the control of those ragged fiends somewhere on the West
Bank. His emotional state is, he is convinced, one of the variables that they
control. If anything remotely like this were acutally possible DARPA would have
signed these people up long ago. Weaponized such a capability would be worth
billions.

I suggest a reading from Carl Sagan's _Demon Haunted World_ until the spooks
are exorcised. (I won't say "extinguished" again even as a joke.) The spooks
don't seem to be suspectible to rational arguments, none that I can generate at
any rate. But, maybe Rick and Bill Powers will get it all sorted out.

Problems in science are ordinarily considered to be matters of logic, evidence
and rationality. However, it is my conviction that both Rick and his "I hate
Rick club" are not proceeding from such a basis. Matter of "science" aren't
thought to be decided by voting, but I would be interested in a wider range of
perceptions than have been expressed thus far about this issue. Partly, my
motivation has its source in an application I may be able to make in economic
theory of what I regard as the correct view of this issue. If I can exclude
the possiblity that an enviornment ( including a cultural enviornment )
causally determining by molding, shaping, conditioning, the choices people
make, then that would provide a basis for discarding almost all of the
speculation on cultural and heterodox economic theory that has ever been
written. What would be left would be pretty much bare ground, upon which a
control theory conception of culture could be elaborated. However, to people
not acquainted with control theory, the conclusion which I believe is the
correct one appears, to put it mildly, extremely implausible. Based on the
participation one might be justified in thinking that only Bill Powers and I
adhere to a position that excludes all environmental control of behavior. (I
hope I not mis-stating Bill Powers' position in this regard.) So, I'd be very
much interested views concerning this issue by people who have exposure to
control theory. If you don't wish to post to the CSGnet, you are welcome to
email me directly. If you really want to remain anonomous you can sign onto
one of the free email services as john smith.

best

Bill Williams

As to gun control. I once knew a former Russian infantry officer. One day
listening to an argument about gun control, he remarked that while he doubts
about most methods of gun control there was one that he approved of. Asked
what kind was that, he replied, "Open sights."

···

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[From Rick Marken (2002.09.27.1650)]

Me:

What control theory shows is that the "causal" path from environment to
behavior runs through the environment, in particular through the controlled
variable, not through the organism.

Bill Powers (2002.09.27.1609 MDT)

The causal path actually runs from the disturbance, to the controlled
variable, through the organism, and then to the output action, doesn't it?

Of course. I was referring to the _apparent_ causal relationship that exists
between changes in d and changes in o: the relationship that conventional
psychologists call a causal relationship between independent and dependent
variable. It's not that this apparent causal path actually runs from environment
to behavior via the controlled variable. I should have said that the observed
relationship between o and d reflects the environmental function connecting o
and d to qi. Conventional psychologists take this observed relationship to
reflect the organism function connecting qi (or d) to o. That is the behavioral
illusion.

> So the clearest message of PCT is not that "There is no
> causal relationship between behavior and environment" but, rather, "An
>observed causal relationship between behavior and environment can only be
>understood once the controlled variable has been identified".

That's better, in my opinion.

Great. Thanks.

Best

Rick

···

--
Richard S. Marken, Ph.D.
The RAND Corporation
PO Box 2138
1700 Main Street
Santa Monica, CA 90407-2138
Tel: 310-393-0411 x7971
Fax: 310-451-7018
E-mail: rmarken@rand.org

[From Bill Powers (2002.09.27.1609 MDT)]

Rick Marken (2002.09.26.0920)--

But I think we're getting a bit off point. This thread started when Bill
Williams

(UMKC 24 September 2002 12:33) asked the following:

> So, my question for you would be how would you justify from a control
theory
> perspective an argument that external circumstance is the cause of
behavior.

In the process of answering this question I realized that we have sometimes
characterized one of the "messages" of PCT as "Behavior is not caused by
external
circumstances". As I was constructing my reply to Bill W. I realized that
this
can be a confusing message because behavior certainly can be seen and
described ... as being caused by disturbances to controlled variables.

I think that's true of _deviations_ from normal behavior patterns, but if
you cast your mind back over a typical day, how many of your actions are
aimed only or primarily at counteracting the effects of disturbances of
static controlled variables? That's what has to be true if actions are to
be determined primarily by disturbances.

  In my life, most of my actions are produced to create effects I want to
achieve, and serious disturbances are not common. Most of the variables I
control (at least as it seems to me right now) I am causing to change --
I'm not holding them in a constant condition. I pick up a glass and cup and
return them to the kitchen. I get out a map and look up Wolfgang''s
new location. I fix a peanut-butter sandwich and eat it. I pound away at
the keyboard making these letters appear. Of course there are small
independent disturbances all the time, but they aren't making me perform
all of these different actions. Controlling some variables like the peanut
butter sandwich is done to control other variables like hunger, but at the
level of making the sandwich the actions are produced primarily by varying
reference signals. My hunger can't tell me that the peanut butter is in the
pantry, or tell me how to spread peanut butter on bread.

There are always small errors that I correct with small adjustments of my
actions, but the main action is there simply to make something change the
way I want it to. If all disturbances from independent sources disappeared,
I wouldn't quit doing these things. I'm satisfying my own higher goals most
of the time, and the errors I'm correcting wouldn't be there if it weren't
for the other goals -- as well as whatever disturbances happen to be acting..

What control theory shows is that the "causal" path from environment to
behavior
runs through the environment, in particular through the controlled
variable, not
through the organism.

The causal path actually runs from the disturbance, to the controlled
variable, through the organism, and then to the output action, doesn't it?
It doesn't go backward through the environmental feedback function to the
output, bypassing the organism. It only SEEMS to do that because of the
relationship between the disturbance and the action.

I don't think we should lose sight of the literal physical effects. They go
(View this with Courier font, monotype)

                                        r
                                        v
d ---> qc ---> input function ----->comparator --->qo
         ^ |
  > >
        <-----feedback f <--------------------------

As you can see, the only way for a variation in d to get to qo is through
qc, the input function, and the comparator. Likewise for r: the only way
for r to affect qo is through the comparator, and the only way for it to
affect qc is through the comparator, qo, and the feedback function. It's
clear that qo is a function of both d and r (and itself), not of d alone or
r alone.

The approximations we talk about (qc = r, qd = -f(d)) are just that,
approximations made by assuming infinite gain. There is no actual effect of
d on qo going backward through the feedback function. The reference signal
does not literally determine the input quantity through the inverse of the
input function. The actual physical effects follow the arrows, always. We
mention the _apparent_ reverse relationships because they appear
paradoxical, and also are often mistaken for direct effects (as the
stimulus appears to cause the response directly).

So these "causal" relationships can only be _understood_ in
terms of _controlled variables_, a concept that doesn't even exist in
conventional
studies of behavior. So the clearest message of PCT is not that "There is no
causal relationship between behavior and environment" but, rather, "An
observed
causal relationship between behavior and environment can only be
understood once
the controlled variable has been identified".

That's better, in my opinion. It's just very difficult to get across the
way that closed loop screws up causal relationships.

It's ironic: one of Bandura's big beefs about PCT is that it fails to take
goal-setting into account (that is, behavior caused by "pro-active" changes
in the reference setting). So here I am arguing on Bandura's side.

Best,

Bill P.

[From Fred Nickols (2002.09.28.0832)] --

I have found the "causation" discussion between Rick Marken and Bill Powers
absolutely fascinating and richly informative. Thanks to the both of you.

But, I do have a question about the last part of Bill's latest response to
Rick.

[From Bill Powers (2002.09.27.1609 MDT)]

It's ironic: one of Bandura's big beefs about PCT is that it fails to take
goal-setting into account (that is, behavior caused by "pro-active" changes
in the reference setting). So here I am arguing on Bandura's side.

I'm more than a little confused here. I've never thought that PCT didn't
take goal setting into account. Or, positively stated, I've always thought
that PCT did take goal setting into account. How is it then that you are
arguing on Bandura's side?

Regards,

Fred Nickols
nickols@safe-t.net

[From Bill Powers (2002.09.28.0749 MDT)]

Bill Williams (2002.09.27) --

> Clearly an

environmental disturbance is causally connected to an organism's output. The
rubber band experiement demostrates this much. And other experiements
numerically show a very high coorelation between a disturbance and an
organism's output.

What you say is true, but I've been surprised to see that this "behavioral
illusion" can be taken to mean, "disturbances make me do what I do, so I
have no responsibility for my own actions." This interpretation overlooks
the fact that the actions would not occur if one were not controlling that
particular variable. One is surely the agent responsible for controlling
what one controls.

Furthermore, in complex situations there is normally more than one way to
achieve a given end. We generally learn ways of achieving what we want, and
counteracting disturbances, that do not create serious disturbances of
other things we value. If our response to disturbances consistently creates
errors in others, so they counterattack, the net value to ourselves of our
own actions would be negative, so we would search for different ways of
achieving the same end that would not have such unwanted side-effects. Of
course we may have had a narrow upbringing so we know only one way of
getting what we want, or we may lack the ability to reorganize, but
normally we can be held responsible for the way we defend ourselves. Others
can argue that we have other ways of acting and so can be held responsible
for any pain we cause by continuing to choose a particular way that is
known to disturb others.

In fact, the kinds of defenses we are talking about here are _not_ the kind
involved in the behavioral illusion. For the behavioral illusion to hold,
there must be only one kind of action that can counteract the
disturbance.If a person uses one feedback path to cancel the effect of a
disturbance on one occasion, (arguing factually) and a different path on
the next occasion (arguing ad hominem), the role of the person in switching
among different means of control becomes obvious, and the switching can't
be attributed to the disturbance. A person can't be faulted for defending
against disturbances unless the goal itself is offensive to others, but if
a person chooses a defense that is itself known to disturb others,there is
reason at least to ask questions about that selection of means. At the very
least it can be pointed out that such a choice is likely to lead to direct
conflict.

Best,

Bill P.

[From Bill Powers (2002.09.28.1037 MDT)]

Fred Nickols (2002.09.28.0832) --

I'm more than a little confused here. I've never thought that PCT didn't
take goal setting into account. Or, positively stated, I've always thought
that PCT did take goal setting into account. How is it then that you are
arguing on Bandura's side?

PCT _does_ take goal-setting into account as you say. But if someone says
they are not responsible for the actions they use to counteract
disturbances, they're not taking goal-setting into account, and that is
what Bandura objects to (among other things). I found it interesting to be
repeating what Bandura said in addressing someone in the CSG.

Best,

Bill P.

[From Bill Powers (2002.09.28.0749 MDT)]

Bill Williams (2002.09.27) --

> Clearly an
>environmental disturbance is causally connected to an organism's output. The
>rubber band experiement demostrates this much. And other experiements
>numerically show a very high coorelation between a disturbance and an
>organism's output.

What you say is true, but I've been surprised to see that this "behavioral
illusion" can be taken to mean, "disturbances make me do what I do, so I
have no responsibility for my own actions." This interpretation overlooks
the fact that the actions would not occur if one were not controlling that
particular variable. One is surely the agent responsible for controlling
what one controls.

If I understand the meaning of what I said, and what you say above, then your
argument is not directed at me. However, recently I gave a talk on economics
and the delivery of medical services. In pointing out the implications of
current policies, I described what can and does go wrong in gory detail. One
woman decided she didn't wish to listen to any more of what I had to say, and
asked me to stop. My motive in graphically describing what can go wrong, was to
bring the facts of the situation to as many people as possible in the hope that
a wider awareness of these facts would result in a change in policy. However,
for the woman who ask me to stop, a commonplace description of what transpired
would be that: the emotional "impact" of what I was saying was a "cause" of her
distress. Had she known what I was going to say, she could have "controlled"
her environment by not entering the room where I was going to talk. Would it be
permissible to say that her distress was a result of a conflict between her
reluctance to leave the session, and her being "disturbed" by what I had to
say? I am not in an ultimate sense prepared to abandon the proposition that a
control system controls perception. But, it seeme to me that persuasive
explainations of what appear to be exceptions need to be constructed. Would a
distinction between steady state and transient phenomena be of use in such
cases?

What about recieving a false report that a family member has been injured? The
emotional reaction to such a false report in comonplace thinking attributes the
resulting emotion to an external cause. I don't myself worry much about such
issues, but I can anticipate encountering such questions/objections and I don't
have a ready explaination. Of course, the second time one recieves a such a
report, one would expect that a person would be inclined to verify the report
before generating an emotional reaction. By the 100 false report one wouldn't
be expected to experience a fluttering heart or other emotions.

inquirying minds and all that,

Bill Williams

···

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[From Bill Powers (2002.09.29.1101 MDT)]

Bill Williams (2002.09.28) --

>If I understand the meaning of what I said, and what you say above, then your

argument is not directed at me.

Correct, it was not.

However,
for the woman who ask me to stop, a commonplace description of what transpired
would be that: the emotional "impact" of what I was saying was a "cause"
of her
distress. Had she known what I was going to say, she could have "controlled"
her environment by not entering the room where I was going to talk. Would
it be
permissible to say that her distress was a result of a conflict between her
reluctance to leave the session, and her being "disturbed" by what I had to
say?

That would be a common way of putting it, and maybe in practical terms it's
OK, but technically (as you know) this is not how feelings work (at least
under my propositions concerning emotions).I would just say the conflict
was between wanting to hear what you have to say and NOT wanting to hear
what you have to say. If she hadn't cared to hear any more of your talk,
she just would have left. If she had wanted to hear more of the gory
details, she would have stayed. But what she wanted was BOTH, which is
impossible, so she had a conflict and had to suffer two errors at once. The
result of this was to be left in a state where she was prepared to act but
was not acting, a state which tends to go with strong emotion.

Actually, she tried to resolve the conflict by asking you to stop. If you
stopped, the conflict was resolved. But if you didn't stop, she would
remain in conflict unless she suddenly stopped wishing for you not to be
saying what you were saying, or stopped wishing to hear any more of your talk.

So how much of that was your "fault?" I don't know. Did you know you there
were some squeamish people in the audience? Did you warn the audience, the
way they do on TV, that "some of the material in this talk may be graphic
-- viewer discretion is advised"? You probably wouldn't have used such
images if you didn't want people to get a _little_ upset. But I doubt that
you wanted anyone to be as upset as this woman evidently was. If you didn't
know that she would be so distressed, then I can't see that you could be
held responsible for her reaction. What you said was certainly an occasion
for her reaction (if you hadn't said it, she wouldn't have reacted).
However, what she wanted was equally effective in producing the reaction,
the strong desire not to hear that kind of thing.

The sticky situation arises when you DO know that a person will be upset if
you say certain things, and you say them anyway. Whose desires are to
prevail? Does freedom of speech supercede freedom _from_ speech? If you
know that a little old lady believes that blasphemy will call down the
wrath of God, can you in all fairness be held responsible for her distress
when you shout "God damn you to hell"? I say yes, that's how I would
arrange things if I could vote on it. What you're _really_ responsible for
is another matter, but we're not talking about objective truth here.
I'm just describing what I would recommend by way of social rules if anyone
asked.

Best,

Bill P.

[From Bruce Nevin (2002.10.01.0909 EDT)]

Bill Williams 2002.9.26 23:04)–

Clearly an environmental disturbance is
causally connected to an organism’s output. The rubber band experiement
demostrates this much. And other experiements numerically show a
very high coorelation between a disturbance and an organism’s ouput. But
there is little connection between a distrubance and the controlled
variable. […] I don’t think the phrase “cause of
behavior” has a clear referent. Does it mean the organisms output?
or is it the values which the controlled variable takes on? or What??

The ambiguity is not in “cause” but in “behavior”.
When you’re talking to economists, etc., “behavior” refers to
the organism’s outputs, and the correlation between disturbance and
output is what they look for and what they see. When you’re talking to
this group, behavioral outputs can be understood only with respect to the
reference value for a CV and the gain in a control loop - as in the
slogan “behavior is the control of perception”.
Call the common usage behavior(o) and the PCT usage behavior(L). When we
say that disturbances cause behavior we mean that they cause behavior(o)

  • provided that CV, reference value, and loop gain persist. (This proviso
    is invisible and puzzling for those who do not understand PCT.)
    Disturbances generally do not determine what the organism controls as CV,
    nor the reference value, nor the loop gain. It is true that the organism
    may vary any or all of these in the face of sufficient disturbances, but
    how or even whether they vary cannot be predicted from the disturbance,
    so the disturbance does not cause these changes. Behavior(L) can be
    influenced, but not caused.
    I say “generally”. In some experimental work the experimenter
    does actually reach in and change a neural signal, evidently the
    reference signal for e.g. arm configuration in a simian. Disturbances can
    be applied anywhere in the loop. With prismatic goggles or funny
    headphones qi can be disturbed, by interference with effectors qo can be
    disturbed, with chemicals or with electrical probes input functions,
    output functions, or reference signals can be disturbed.

But if we were able to disturb behavior(L) the resulting behavior(o)
would be “voluntary”. The subject would be doing it as means of
controlling other perceptions. And that kind of consistency within the
organism’s control hierarchy can’t be attained by such
manipulations.

What about hypnosis? Someone who knows more about it than I do might be
able to answer that.

    /Bruce

Nevin

···

At 11:04 PM 9/26/2002 +0300, William Williams wrote:

[From Rick Marken (2002.10.1.0910)]

Bruce Nevin (2002.10.01.0909 EDT)

The ambiguity is not in "cause" but in "behavior".

I think both terms are quite ambiguous. It takes a lot of talking, mathematics,
modeling and demonstration to get oneself understood. I don't think, for example,
that there is a simple way to explain what the behavioral illusion is about. But
it can be explained. At least, I think I (finally) understand it, in a way that is
useful to me, anyway.

When you're talking to economists, etc., "behavior" refers to the organism's
outputs...

I don't think this is necessarily true. I think everyone, economists included,
uses the term "behavior" as a blanket term for all aspects of what people do:
outputs, controlled variables and side effects. The problem (from a PCT
perspective) is that behavioral scientists don't make the distinctions between
output, controlled variable and side effects that they should make for a proper
understanding of what they call "behavior"

Best regards

Rick

···

--
Richard S. Marken, Ph.D.
The RAND Corporation
PO Box 2138
1700 Main Street
Santa Monica, CA 90407-2138
Tel: 310-393-0411 x7971
Fax: 310-451-7018
E-mail: rmarken@rand.org

[From Bill Powers (2002.10.02.0500 MDT)]

Rick Marken (2002.10.1.0910)--

> Bruce Nevin (2002.10.01.0909 EDT)

> The ambiguity is not in "cause" but in "behavior".

I think both terms are quite ambiguous.

I agree. The ambiguity in "cause" has to do with single or multiple
causation, inclusive or exclusive causation, and continuous or event-wise
relationships between variables. This is not even to mention the four
classical types of causation, of which only "final cause" refers to
control. Also when "circular causation" exists, we can't really speak of
causation in the customary ways. I think the control model gives us a
better vocabulary for speaking about such things.

"Behavior" is just as ambiguous.I try to use the term "action" when
referring to the outputs a person produces in trying to control some
specific variable, and variable (or quantity), consequence, outcome,
result, or perception -- among others -- to refer to that which is
controlled. The word behavior shifts its meaning as you pay attention to
different parts of the control loop. It also changes meaning when we refer
to what other people can be seen "doing", and what we mean when we refer to
what we ourselves are "doing." We see only other people's actions and their
publicly observable consequences. We see our own actions and publicly
observable consequences also, but we see them from a point of view
unavailable to others, and we also experience consequences (among which is
often the main point of the behavior, as in scratching an itch) that nobody
else can experience. Furthermore, when we see multiple consequences of an
action, we alone know which one we intended to occur, and which are
side-effects.

People commonly refer to the consequences of actions as if they were
actions.For example, I'm about to toast some bread, but knowing that
doesn't tell you what action I'm going to perform. It only describes the
outcome I intend to produce, and the fact that I'm going to be the agent
who does it. Yet nobody would be upset if I referred to toasting bread as a
behavior. Nor, or course, would anyone be upset if I used the term behavior
to refer to the actions: getting the bread out, extracting a slice, put it
in the toaster oven, pressing down the knob, and so forth, which are the
means of toasting the bread. Of course at a lower level, the actions are
themselves controlled outcomes of a lower order, but staying at one level,
the term behavior does not distinguish between means and ends. I'm sure
that even without PCT this ambiguity is recognized, but nobody seems to
care much about it.The problem is quite commonly ignored.When someone says
that a person needs to change his behavior, does this mean that he should
change the means by which he achieves the outcome of obtaining other
people's money, or that he should stop trying to obtain other people's
money? "Stealing" is certain a behavior, but _what_ behavior is it?

Best,

Bill P.