Essay from Bill Williams

[From Bill Powers (2001.10.16.0931 MDT)]

[This is a communication from Bill Williams, the third draft of a reply to
my question of the difference between "individual" and "person" in economic
writings. I thought it was full of ideas that CSGnet members would be
interested in. After the first draft I asked if I might post it to CSGnet
and he agreed, also sending a second draft. After the second draft, I
suggested to Bill that he might want to reduce the length of the references
list, considering the audience, and he did. Now I'm not so sure he should
have listened to me. I'm sure that if anyone wants to see the whole list,
Bill will be happy to post it to CSGnet. Commentary, of course, is welcome.
I've added title lines and cleaned up a few typos.]

···

=============================================================================
Bill,

I didn't intend to "inflict" the _whole_ of the reference list on the net,
but
there is a difference in the function assigned to such lists in the natural
as
opposed to the cultural studies. In cultural fields the reference list has
as
one of its functions the task of indicating if the author is sufficiently
familiar with the field[s] of inquiry involved to have a warrent to assert
whatever is being asserted. Given this sort of reference list it is
possible to
scan the listing and see where the author is coming from and what portion of
the literature the author is familiar with.
...

We've discussed the question of "individualism" and inconclusively several
times in the past. Apparently this go-round succesfully communicated why
I find the use of the term impolitic. So, I am convinced would many people
in
the various specialties within social theory.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------

                        Individual vs. Person
                         William D. Williams
                   University of Missouri Kansas City

Both orthodox economists and their critics describe the standard economic
analysis as based upon the assumption of "atomistic individualism." By
"atomistic" they both mean that the orthodox analysis assumes that a market
is a process that involves so many agents that no one agent can do anything
to make a significant difference in the outcome of trades taking place in
the market. This situation is closely approximated by a grain farmer's
situation. Most contemporary economic activity, however, takes place
in markets in which there are only a handful of economic actors mainly
corporations on at least one side of the market. Orthodox economists,
however, rather than attempting to consider a typical market and the
society of which it is a part of instead prefer to begin their analysis
with something like Robinson Crusoe-- an economic agent in isolation.
Then after describing, how, per impossible, such an isolated individual
would make economic decisions, they move on to an analysis of trade
between such still isolated atomistic individuals as they might
interact if the only knowledge they had of each other was obtained
by way of signals about prices and quantities. In this world there is
no "keeping up with the Jones." There is according to the assumptions
of the analysis no possibility for envy. See however Thorstein Veblen's
1896 _ The Theory of the Leisure Class _ And, because the market is
considered to be "atomistic" there is in this idealized representation
none of the collusion or efforts to corner the market that are a part
of the actual economy. Built into the analysis is an assumption that the
"atomistic individual" has complete knowledge of all options which
are available or will in the future be available. Consequently there
is no point to advertising in such a world.

The whole point of the orthodox analysis is to construct a "proof" that
a "rational individual" as an economic agent will generate supply and
demand functions which in tern in the context of a perfect market result
in outcomes which are stable, equitable and efficient. As a consumer, it
is asserted the quantity demand will decrease as the price increases,
The same is true on the side of supply for the activities of the
"rational individual" acting as a producer-- except that supply functions
will slope upward-- as the price increases more will be produced. The
proof that free markets generate optimal outcomes depends upon the
interaction between the downward sloping demand curves and the upward
sloping supply functions. The orthodox have invested a great deal of
effort into constructing "proofs" that such must be the case. So they
have very little interest in the "paradox" of the Giffen effect which
asserts that in some cases the demand function will slope upward and
consequently pose a hazard to economic stability.

There is it might be noted no unemployment in the orthodox world--
it can't happen! They have definitions which exclude it. So much
for the definitions you might say, but until someone comes up with
a more convincing set the fact that the orthodox have what appears
to be an orderly body of theory counts for a lot. John M Keynes
perhaps the most effective critic of orthodoxy had this to say about
the basis of the orthodoxy's dominance

     "The completeness of the Ricardian [ economic orthodoxy ]
     victory is something of a curiosity and a mystery. It
     must have been due to a complex of suitability in the
     doctrine to the environment into which it was projected.
     That it reached conclusions quite different from what the
     ordinary uninstructed person would expect, added, I suppose,
     to its intellectual prestige. That its teaching, translated
     into practice, was austere and often unpalatable, lent it
     virtue. That it was adapted to carry a vast and consistent
     logical superstructure, gave it beauty. That it could
     explain much social injustice and apparent cruelty as a
     inevitable incident in the scheme of progress, and the
     attempt to change such things as likely on the whole to
     more harm than good, commended it to authority. That it
     afforded a measure of justification to the free activities
     of the individual capitalist, attracted to it the support
     of the dominant social force behind authority.
       pp. 32-33. _The General Theory_

And, this "orderly body of theory" is all derived from assumptions
which are built into the conception of orthodoxy's "economic man."
Both the orthodox and their heterodox critics are in implicit
agreement to describe this conception in terms of "individualism."

Unfortunately, when the critics of economic orthodox attempted to
construct alternatives to economic orthodoxy they did so in large
part by adopting what were inverted or converse assumptions. ( There
is, however, an exception to this trend represented by the works
of Thorstein Veblen, John Dewey, and my mentor in economics J. Fagg
Foster who was also an exception to this trend. ) So that where
orthodoxy is described in terms of an "individual[istic]" conception
of behavior nearly all heterodox formulations are to some extent
collectivist in their assumptions. This means, for you, that nearly
all of the critical work in economics is associated with an absurd
starting point. In terms of control theory, the orthodox "individualistic"
assumptions make much more sense. And, the criticism by some very
conservative economists of heterodox and radical economists
attempts to use behaviorism meets with your approval. And, I
would have to agree in the sense that nearly all of the dissenting
economists have to some extent adopted either explicitly or
implicitly assumptions derived from behaviorism. So, at a very
basic level, however much I disagree with their politics the
orthodox are more correct in regard to their most elementary
description of how choices are made--they are made by discrete
organism. It is within the biological specimens that choices are being
constructed and carried out.

However, after correctly locating choice within the biological
specimens, the orthodox economists made the mistake of attributing
an absolute and unexceptional validity to a market determination
of all economic values. They have tailored most of their
efforts to supporting this attribution of unexceptional validity
to market outcomes. Thus the real worth of a person consists
of, and only of, what purchasing power they can bring to the
market-- and this is all there is to the question of value and
human dignity-- at least as far as the orthodox are concerned.
The attribution to an impersonal market as the sole decision
making institution in society required a very clever intellectual
feat-- ( See Keynes above ) the construction of a explanation
which would explain in sufficiently elaborate detail why only
a market was equipped to express human choices. The task of
constructing this explanation was begun by Adam Smith.

While Smith's analysis was widely considered persuasive,
his _The Wealth of Nations_ contained a number of logical
inconsistencies which took over a hundred years to provide a
proximate solution-- the neo-classical formulation the basics
of which are still taught in introductory economics a century
later. Unfortunately, the path which the orthodox analysis
took after correctly locating choice in the "individual"
biological specimens attempted to use a reformulation of the
ancient doctrine of hedonism expressed in terms of the methods
of physics. ( See Mirowski, Philip. 19?? _More Heat than Light_ )
Obviously a hundred years ago it would have been all but impossible
for them to have adopted a control theory conception of behavior.
The result was primarily a pseudo scientific defense of the rights
of property expressed in an elaborate mathematical formalism. As an
intellectual matter, it is a formalism that has, despite many critics,
endured without major revisions throughout the 2Oth century.
A principle basis of the orthodox formulation's dominance has
been its claim to be the only economic doctrine which has an
analytic explanation of the way in which prices are determined
in the marketplace-- hence the common designation of the course
in which it is taught as "price theory." (See Liebhausky) As
long as our society is one in which markets assume a dominant
role, it is unlikely that any rival formulation of the economic
process can displace orthodoxy without offering a superior analysis of
markets and the formation of prices. None of the contemporary rivals to
economic orthodoxy and its conception of "Economic Man" contain
the basis for developing an analysis that is capable of explaining
how decisions regarding transactions in a market-- the prices and
quantities at which trades take place has any prospect for
displacing the orthodox doctrine.

Control theory, however, as demonstrated by initial applications
concerned with the "paradoxes" of the Giffen Effect, the Backward
Bending Labor Curve, and anomalies such as the Veblen/Duesenberry
effect, Labor's seeming irrationality in decisions to strike,
Veblen effects, would appear to provide a new conception of
economic behavior and method of analysis which is capable of
providing a more comprehensive analysis of marketplace behavior
than the one supplied by orthodoxy. The initial cases to which
control theory has been applied have been the intractable
paradoxes which have plagued orthodox analysis ever since its
initial statement. In contrast to the orthodox analysis which
treats all economic choices as being essentially or formally
identical, a control theory analysis, because its description
of human judgement and behavior has the capacity to account
more adequately for the complexities of human experience can
not be completed solely as a speculative exercise in "armchair"
theorizing. Thus extending the initial applications requires
a combination of knowledge involving historical/empirical
insights into actual conditions with the control theory analysis
rather than the construction of "existence proofs" and similar
analytic exercises.

The problem of constructing an alternative explanation of
economic phenomena is, however, continuous with a more inclusive
difficulty which confronts all contemporary efforts to develop
a meaningful body of social theory.

The problem, as I see it, is that adopting control theory requires
that we adopt a completely new conception of how what we call
"culture" works. It makes some sense to think that there is a
something or a process to which we assign the caption "culture."
But, because nearly all of the people who have been hired to spend
their lives thinking about the question of culture have either
implicitly or explicitly taken their assumptions from behaviorism
the whole notion of "culture" has been mis-specified. The result
has been a notion which has sometimes been called "cultural
behaviorism." But, even those who have explicitly rejected
behaviorism have often thought of culture as some external force
that "shapes," "molds," and "conditions" behavior. The heterodox
economists have adopted this thinking from sociology, anthropology,
and social psychology. The most prominent exponent in social
theory of this position is the French sociologiest Emile Durkheim.
Durkheim formulated as a methodological principle the _rule_ that
social phenomena ought not to be explain using psychological, that
is "individualistic", constructs.

   "In a word, there is between psychology and sociology the
    same break in continuity as between biology and the
    physicochemical sciences. Consequently, every time that
    a social phenomenon is directly explained by a psychological
    phenomenon, we may be sure that the explanation is false."
    p. 104.

    "When the individual has been eliminated, society alone
     remains. We must, then, seek the explanation of social
     life in the nature of society itself. It is quite evident
     that, since it infinitely surpasses the individual in
     time as well as in space, it is in a position to impose
     upon him ways of acting and thinking which it has
     consecratred with its prestige. This pressure, which is
     the distinctive property of social facts, is the pressure
     which the totality exerts on the individual."

    "But, it will be said that, since the only elements
     making up society are individuals, the first origins of
     sociological phenomena cannot but be psychological. In
     reasoning thus, it can be established just as easily that
     organic phenomena may be explained by inorganic phenomena.'
       p. 102

Very few social theorists are going to admit that they have even
in part been mistaken about the basic nature of social reality,
choice and the causal structure of society. The idea that
the orthodox economists conceptions have been in some respects
closer to the truth can not be admitted. But, even though the
orthodox economists have been closer to the truth in some respects,
I don't necessarily recommend adopting their caption
"individual" for use in applying control theory in a reconstruction
of social and economic theory. I would rather start with fresh terms.

The more experience I have, and it is certainly not much at this
point, the more I am impressed with the difficulty involved for
a person who has made an investment of time and effort in thinking
about social theory to discard preconceptions and adopt
a control theory analysis. In comparison to the conceptual
difficulties, I don't think the choice of a nomenclature makes
that much difference. We still say "sun rise," rather than
going to the trouble of constructing a more accurate description.
Contemporary physiologists still use the term "reflex" but at
least the better ones don't mean at all the same thing as the
term did in 1900. But, choosing and insisting upon a distinctive
nomenclature "people" and "person" is a way for me to assert
before an audience of economists a viewpoint about questions
economists ought to be asking about the assumptions they make
concerning human behavior. This is not an easy point to make
when there is a strongly held, if illogical, prevailing conclusion
in left leaning social theory and heterodox economics that it has
been shown that psychological analysis can not provide any help
for the difficulties experienced in attempting to construct
an alternative to economic orthodoxy. Perhaps, it will help to
indicate the extent to which contemporary heterodox economists
have come to a despairing conclusion if it is pointed out that
there have been a number of recent assertions that logical analysis
the process of deduction itself must be abandoned.

When I describe the applications of control theory in
economics, many heterodox or radical economists see similarities
in some respects between the way I treat choice and the treatment
of choice in orthodox economics. They say, "Oh, but you're making
"individualistic" assumptions about economic agents!" My reply
has been to deny it altogether, and assert that what I'm doing
is treating an economic agent as a "person." And, I define
person in a way that emphasizes differences between a "person" as
I define the term and the orthodoxy's "individual." As far as
I know "person" has not been used by any tradition in social or
psychological theory so I'm free to define the term as I please.
There's no one to object. In contrast the term "individual"
already has a clearly understood meaning as orthodoxy has defined
it in terms of their "economic man" with an agreed upon
set of traits which constitutes a "rational individual." So,
its more politic for me to avoid using the term "individual"
which has a technical meaning in econmics and social theory and
instead talk about how a "person" or "people" actually behave in
terms of control theory.

No one here in the University of Missouri Kansas City _ever_
uses the term "individual" except in discussions concerned
with the structure or implications of orthodox economic theory.
But they do frequently talk about "stimuli" and "response" and
when they do I make the same, or at least similar objections
to the ones I from time to time make about the use in other
context of the term "individual." After one of my questions
"What do mean by "response?" I explained that "response"
suggested the possibility that the person was assuming the
adequacy of behaviorism. In an annoyed reply the person
asked, or perhaps asserted "What's wrong with behaviorism
anyway?" They didn't genuinely want know, and it wasn't the
time or place for even a brief explanation.

In my own case I gave up on orthodox economic theory by the
time I was a sophomore, and I lost interest in critical studies
not long after that-- the defects in the orthodox analysis
were so readily apparent once they are recognzied that
constructing exhaustive critical arguments seemed to me futile.
So while I think I understand what the problem is about, I'm
not by any means all that well equipped to expound on all the
fine points regarding the defects contained in the conception
of "economic man" as a "rational individual." The discussion
here probably leaves out a lot that someone working in the
area would feel compelled to include. In compensation the
references below provide something of guide to the literature.
But, I'm not in any doubt that there is a fair sized community
that when they hear the term "individual" used immediately dredge
up all sorts of connections with economic orthodoxy that
are extraneous to the points which you wish to make about
human behavior and control theory. For them "individual" is a
technical term in the same way that "stimulus" and "reponse"
are technical terms for psychologists.

In the above where I use "connections" I originally used the
term "associations" but then I thought am I myself bringing in
an improper psychological construct? Maybe not, no one is likely
to confuse me with a 19th century "associationalist." Anyway,
what ever "associations" you yourself make in connection with the
term "individual" for many people the use of the term "pushes a
button." And, it pushes it rather hard for the community of
which, in someway, I'm a part. In the same way, I might advise
an economist talking to a control theory crowd, to avoid the
casual use of "stimulus" and "response" and other psychological
jargon because they'll think that you're either not aware of the
meanings of the terms or alternatively that you know what the
terms mean ( for them ) and use them anyway.

I am confident that I know what you mean when you use the term
"individual." And, I don't think your use of the term _as_you_define_
it_ involves any error. So, I don't regard it as a question
involving "correctness" but rather one of communication and expediency--
for me the use of "person" avoids the possibility, or the inevitability
of confusions and misunderstandings which would accompany the use
of the term "individual."

Archer, Margaret S. 1988 _Culture and Agency: The Place of Culture
  in Social Theory_ Cambridge University Press Cambridge

Ayres, Clarence E., 1965 "Nature and Man: The Emergence of
   the Social Sciences." In the University of Denver Centennial
   Symposium, _The Responsible Individual and Free Society
   in an Expanding Universe. Published for the University of
   Denver by Big Mountain Press, Denver

Dewey, John. 1930 _Individualism Old and New_

Durkheim, Emile. 1938 _The Rules of Sociological Method_.
  University of Chicago Press Chicago, Illinois

    "In a word, there is between psychology and sociology the
    same break in continuity as between biology and the
    physiochemical sciences. Consequently, every time that
    a social phenomenon is directly explained by a psychological
    phenomenon, we may be sure that the explanation is false."
    p. 104.

Foster, J. Fagg. 1981. "The Relation of Value and Economic
    Analysis." Journal of Economic Issues. Vol. 15. # 4. in
      Special Issue of the Journal "Collected Papers J. Fagg Foster"

"individualism" Macpherson, C. B. in _The New Palgrave: A Dictionary
  of Economics_ 1987 Ed John Eatwell, Murry Milgate, Peter Newman.
  London: McMillian pp. 790-2.

Hayek, F. A. 1946 _Individualism: True and False_ The twelfth
  Finlay Lecture... 1945. Dublin: Hodges, Figgis & Co: Oxford

Henry, John F. 1999 "Property Rights, Markets and Economic Theory:
  Keynes versus Neoclassicism-- again." Review of Political
  Economy, Volume 11, Number 2 pp. 151-169.

Hollis and Nell, Edward. 1975. _Rational _Economic _Man_.
    Cambridge University Press.

"individual" Palgrave, R.H.I. (ed.) 1894-9. Dictionary of
  Political Economy. London: Macmillian & Co.

Keynes, John Maynard. 1936, 1964 _The General Theory of Employment,
  Interest and Money_ New York: Harcourt Brace

Lester, Richard A. 1938 "Political Economy Versus Individualistic
  Economics." American Economic Review Vol. 28. # 1. March pp. 55-64.

Liebhafsky, H. H. 1968 _The Nature of Price Theory_ The Dorsey
   Press, Homewood Illinois.

Lukes, S 1973 _Individualism_ Oxford: Blackwell

MacPherson, C. B. 1962 _The Political Theory of Possessive
   Individualism_ Oxford: Oxford University Press

Mirowski, Philip. 19?? _More Heat than Light: Economics as Social
  Physics as Nature's Economics_ Cambridge: Cambridge University
    Press

Veblen, Thorstein. 1896 _The Theory of the Leisure Class_

[From Rick Marken (2001.12.16.1345)]

[From Bill Powers (2001.10.16.0931 MDT)]

[This is a communication from Bill Williams, the third draft of a reply to
my question of the difference between "individual" and "person" in economic
writings. I thought it was full of ideas that CSGnet members would be
interested in.

Yes. Very interesting.

Control theory, however, as demonstrated by initial applications
concerned with the "paradoxes" of the Giffen Effect, the Backward
Bending Labor Curve, and anomalies such as the Veblen/Duesenberry
effect, Labor's seeming irrationality in decisions to strike,
Veblen effects, would appear to provide a new conception of
economic behavior and method of analysis which is capable of
providing a more comprehensive analysis of marketplace behavior
than the one supplied by orthodoxy.

I'm familiar with the control theory model of the Giffen Effect . I would like
to hear about the control theory models of the other phenomena (Backward Bending
Labor Curve, Veblen/Duesenberry effect, etc) and about the phenomena themselves,
of course. What, for example, is the Backward Bending Labor Curve?

I am currently reading _Development As Freedom_ by Amartya Sen, a Nobel Prize
winning economist who seems to have an excellent grasp of control theory. Of
course he doesn't call it control theory but his book is all about how economies
can inhibit or facilitate people's ability to control what matters to them.
Money is just one means (along with political and social institutions) people
have available to them for achieving this control, which Sen refers to as
"freedom". I highly recommend this book, not least because I think Sen's ideas
will prove to be comfortably compatible with my own emerging model of an economy
as an aggregate input control system.

Best regards

Rick

···

--
Richard S. Marken, Ph.D.
The RAND Corporation
PO Box 2138
1700 Main Street
Santa Monica, CA 90407-2138
Tel: 310-393-0411 x7971
Fax: 310-451-7018
E-mail: rmarken@rand.org

[From Fred Nickols (2001.10.17.0958)] --

I'm certainly not all the way through his book by any
means, but it seems to me that the view of economics set
forth by Ludwig von Mises comes awfully close to being a
control theory view of people and markets. See, for
example, his book: Human Action - A Treatise on
Economics.

···

--
Fred Nickols
nickols@att.net

[From Rick Marken (2001.10.17.1400)]

Fred Nickols (2001.10.17.0958) --

I'm certainly not all the way through his book by any
means, but it seems to me that the view of economics set
forth by Ludwig von Mises comes awfully close to being a
control theory view of people and markets. See, for
example, his book: Human Action - A Treatise on
Economics.

What is it about von Mises' economics that leads you to this conclusion?
I've read some things by and about von Mises and I didn't get the
impression that von Mises came close to having a "control theory view"
of economics.

I think a control theory view of economies (or components thereof) would
represent an economy as a collective control of input system. The
collective organization of the economy would be seen as a reflection of
the control system organization of its individual members. Economics, it
seems to me, is human nature writ large. The productive component of an
economy seems like an obvious analog of the output function of an
individual control system. The consumption component of an economy seems
like one obvious analog of the input function in an individual control
system. The input and output of this economic system are clearly linked
in a closed loop; people consume the goods and services they produce and
produce more goods and services by expending the energy contained in
what is consumed. Of course, the system is much more complex than a
simple, single loop system. But it seems to me that a control theory
view of the economy would see an economy as a closed loop, input (goods
and services) control system. I think Sen's point is that there is more
to input and output than the stuff represented by money: goods and
services.

Best

Rick

···

---
Richard S. Marken, Ph.D.
The RAND Corporation
PO Box 2138
1700 Main Street
Santa Monica, CA 90407-2138
Tel: 310-393-0411 x7971
Fax: 310-451-7018
E-mail: rmarken@rand.org

[From Rick Marken (2001.12.16.1345)]

What, for example, is the Backward Bending Labor Curve?

At one time orthodox economists thought that the labor would work more hours at
a higher wage rate. Then a number of exceptions were found, and the orthodox
developed an explaination for these exceptions. Using control theory it is
possible to provide an alternative explaination. Supppose you have a reference
level for consumption. Then as a laborer to reach this goal you must work
enough hours times your wage-rate to obtain the income to support your
reference level of consumption. If the wage-rate is increased the number of
hours required decreases, and conversely. I've written a control theory
program that illustrates the effect ( just to be able to say I've done it ) but
aside from filling in a slot its not that interesting.

I am currently reading _Development As Freedom_ by Amartya Sen, a Nobel Prize
winning economist who seems to have an excellent grasp of control theory.

Sen is one of the few recent winners that I regard as having deserved the prize.

Best
  Bill Williams

···

______________________________________________________________________
Do you want a free e-mail for life ? Get it at http://www.email.ro/

[ From Bill Williams 17 October 2001 1:15 CST ]

···

______________________________________________________________________
Do you want a free e-mail for life ? Get it at http://www.email.ro/

[From Fred Nickols (2001.10.17.0958)] --

I'm certainly not all the way through his book by any
means, but it seems to me that the view of economics set
forth by Ludwig von Mises comes awfully close to being a
control theory view of people and markets. See, for
example, his book: Human Action - A Treatise on
Economics.

It seems to me that as yet, what a "control theory view of people
and markets" is, has yet to be determined with any conclusiveness.
The following notes from Mises and others of the Austrian school,
Of which he is a member, illustrate points with which I do not agree.

1) Mises says in _Human Nature and Conduct_ p. 184. "Governors
appointed by popular vote are Fuhrers."

2) Mises, 1960 in _Epistomological Problems of Economics_ states

  p. 24. "There can be no doubt whatsoever concerning the aprioristic
  character of these disciplines [concerned with the science of human
  action]."

  p. 26. "...the elementary laws of value are valid without exception
  for all human action. p. 27.

Mill, John Stuart Political Economy Book III chap i in a somewhat
earlier ( 1847 I think ) statement argued,

   "Happily, there is nothing in the laws of Value which
   remain for the present or any future writer to clear up:
   the theory of the subject is complete."

I would regard the Giffen Effect as an example of an _exception_ to
the elementary laws of value which was not understood by either Mill
nor Mises. However, according to Hayek his work has attained such
perfection that,

    "... no kind of experience can ever force us to discard or modify
    a priori theorems. They are not derived from experience; they are
    logically prior to it ... p. 28.

Mises believes that he _knows_ what are the correct _a priori_ theorems upon
which all social and economic theory should be based. No doubt is possible.
All that remains is for the rest of the world to recognize his brilliance.

In a similar statement Robbins, Lionell. _The Nature and Significance
of Economic Science_

     "The efforts of economists during the last hundred and
     fifty years have resulted in the establishment of a body of
     generalizations whose substantial accuracy and importance are
     open to question only by the ignorant or perverse." p. 1.

What should be done with those of us ( the "ignorant and perverse" ) who
do not agree with Professor Von Mises? He tells us in

3) Mises, Ludwig Von 1949 _Human Action: A Treatise on Economics_
  New Haven: Yale University Press

         "It is imperative to bar such scoundrels from access to the
        universities and their articles from being printed in the
       periodicals of the associations of university teachers." p. 871.

My points of disagreement are, 1) I am for lack of a better system
a democrat-- that is I think popular votes provide the best means we
have for selecting who shall rule the community. Because I am
a democrat Mises would say that I am for the establishment of
authoritarian Fuhrers. This is not how I perceive my politics.
I am of the opinion that if we are of the opinion that guns should
not be sold to children, we should be permitted to pass such a
law. Mises, however, states

Mises Ludwing von 1950 Human action: a Treatise on Economics

   for Mises, all government intervention in the market is irrational
   and therefore contrary to economic law see p. 194.

I don't think of a law prohibiting children from buying guns as
necessarily "irrational."

2) I think economics ought to become a hypothetical/empirical discipline
like the other sciences of physics and biology, Mises argues for an
_a priori_ system and he will tell us which are the correct propositions--
which no reasoning or factual information is to be allowed subsequently
to overturn. No doubts are to be allowed-- certainly not from the
outer circles of the "ignorant and perverse."

3) because I disagree with him Mises would label me a scoundrel and
prohibit, me from studying or teaching in a university. And he would
censor me by denying me the possibility of publishing in a scholarly
journal. As I understand it, Mises quite plainly would deny me
what as an American citizen are my rights concerning free speech
and freedom of association. This is not a remote possibility. In
my first job teaching, I was a witness in a suit filed on the basis
of the universities violating a professors right to freedom of
speech and association ( the 1st and 13th? amendments ) The
university administration quite plainly lied under oath during the
trial of the case. Fortunately the jury did not believe them.

The Austrian School in economics of which Von Mises is a part has
been an interesting phenomena. In the above passages, however, I
have difficulty seeing how it "comes awfully close" to representing
a "control theory" point of view. Nickols asserts this to be the
case, and I can anticipate how such a position might be argued.
But, I do not regard the arguments as sound, however plausible
they might initially appear to be.

In the work I have done on the Giffen effect, and other control
theory applications I think it would be difficult for most people
to detect my politics. Looking at the code for the Giffen effect
simulation is not going to tell most people if I am a socialist
or not, or alternatively something else altogether. According,
however, to Mises the very character of the work and the methods
I used are such that the work deserves to be snuffed out. Mises
presents himself as the representative of the highest reaches of
learning and civilization. I have a quite different opinion.

Hayek, Fredric A. 1944 _The Road to Serfdom_ a fellow Austrian
school economist with Mises says,

  p. 166. Individualism is ... an attitude of humility before [the]
  social process and of tolerance to other opinions." p. 166.

How, Hayek's assertion squares with Mises statements has never
been satisfactorily explained.

Sadly many of those who have opposed the pattern of thought which
Mises represents have adopted an even worse set of constructs as
a result of their having adopted assumptions drawn from behaviorism.
The upshot of the essay which I wrote in an effort to persuade Bill
Powers that he should reconsider his use of the term "individual"
was that neither economic orthodoxy nor economic heterodoxy
contains a sufficiently worthwhile point of view to use as a
starting point for constructing a control theory economics.
Control theory I would argue would be better served not to
affiliate it with either side in its choice of a nomenclature.
Markets are not divinely inspired nor are they necessarily demonic.
If we choose to do so I think by popular vote we ought to be
permitted to prohibit children from buying guns. Mises holds
a different view, such a prohibition according to him is a
violation of the rights of property-- this is according to
him a right that should over rule a popular vote.

Obviously I have opinions about the issues involved. They are,
however, opinions concerning which I regard discussion to be a
possibility. For Mises this would not be the true. Once the
correct propositions have been enunciated by him the issue is
settled and the matter is closed.

Best
  Bill Williams

I haven't verified the quotes, so I hope they are correct.

[From Rick Marken (2001.10.18.0800)]

Bill Williams (17 October 2001 1:15 CST ) --

It seems to me that as yet, what a "control theory view of people
and markets" is, has yet to be determined with any conclusiveness.
The following notes from Mises and others of the Austrian school,
Of which he is a member, illustrate points with which I do not agree.
...

Superb post, Bill. CSGnet at its best.

Best

Rick

···

---
Richard S. Marken, Ph.D.
The RAND Corporation
PO Box 2138
1700 Main Street
Santa Monica, CA 90407-2138
Tel: 310-393-0411 x7971
Fax: 310-451-7018
E-mail: rmarken@rand.org

[From Bill Powers (2001.10.18.1236 MDT)]

Bill Williams 17 October 2001 1:15 CST --

I guess Mises is not going to turn out to provide the way for control
theory to get into economics. Of course the old curmudgeon might still have
said a few interesting things. What are these laws of value, anyway?
Despite the Giffen Effect, there could be some validity to them. In our
models of the Giffen phenomenon, the individual goals and variables may
have properties that are different from those of the ensemble of two or
three control systems that produce the "wrong" relation of purchases to
prices.

It may be that there are deeper objections yet to the conventional model.
How about a little exposition on the "laws of value" that these guys think
are so important?

It is really very interesting to hear about these things from someone who
actually knows the territory!

Best,

Bill P.

[From Bruce Gregory (2001.1018.1515)]

Bill Williams 17 October 2001 1:15 CST

Mises believes that he _knows_ what are the correct _a priori_ theorems upon
which all social and economic theory should be based. No doubt is possible.
All that remains is for the rest of the world to recognize his brilliance.

I wish people would adopt the principle of distinguishing between what we
observe and the models we adopt to explain these observations. I don't care
what principles Mises adopts _a priori_, but he has to tell me what
observations he is trying to account for. I can then judge the value of the
model for myself. Arguing that any model is _eo ipso_ "true" is nothing but
theology. And you know what I think about arguing theology.

[From Mike Acree (2001.10.18.1310 PDT)]

Not all Austrians share Mises' apriorism, which is nowadays epistemologically out of fashion. The important point, to my mind, is that Mises' apriorism is more contained, and less damaging, that Bill essay would suggest. That is because Mises makes a fundamental distinction between economics and economic history. Any analysis involving empirical data, including data collected today, he would classify as economic history, an empirical discipline, rather than as economics. Any a priori claims by anyone will tend to look arrogant; but much of _Human Action_ is actually concerned with economic history. If we grant Mises that distinction, then his enterprise doesn't look quite so silly.

None of this is to say Mises will prove compatible with control theory. I argued before that the significant compatibility, to the extent that it can currently be discerned, is methodological:

Mike Acree (2001.01.18.1551)--

There are several interrelated features of his approach that set his theory sharply apart from prevailing approaches to
economics, in just the same ways that PCT is set apart from prevailing theories of psychology. These include subjectivism,
prescission from measurement, and a dynamic analysis of individuals rather than a static analysis of aggregates. They also
include, notably, a pragmatic, value-free approach to the subject. Mises contends that reasoning from natural law or right is
idle; the only question is what works for what ends.

It seems to me ill-advised to leap to the conclusion that an economy is a closed-loop control system--particularly when the PCT canon holds that organizations or societies are not control systems, and such a model is based on quantitative analysis of aggregate data representing subjective phenomena of valuation--and to judge compatibility of economic theories with PCT on that basis.

Back to lurking for awhile,
Mike

[From Rick Marken (2001.10.18.2220)]

Mike Acree (2001.10.18.1310 PDT)

It seems to me ill-advised to leap to the conclusion that
an economy is a closed-loop control system--particularly when
the PCT canon holds that organizations or societies are not
control systems

This is a very good point. A collection of independent control systems
is not a control system. But such a collection does act like _virtual_
control system, keeping a controlled variable in a virtual reference
state. I just built a very simple example of a virtual control system of
this sort. I set up a set of 10 real control systems all controlling the
same perception relative to different reference specifications for the
variable they control. This collection of control systems ends up
keeping the common controlled variable in a virtual reference state that
happens to correspond to the average reference specification for the
collective.

This collective functions as a real control system inasmuch as it
maintains the controlled variable at the virtual reference level,
protected from disturbance. This virtual control process is a side
effect of the actual controlling done by each individual control system.
It's possible that none of the individual control systems actually has a
reference specification that corresponds to the virtual reference
specification. But the collective _acts like_ a real control system. So
I think it's fair to model this collective as a control system as long
as we remember that we are modeling the functional, not the
organizational, characteristics of a collection of real, individual
control organizations.

Best regards

Rick

···

--
Richard S. Marken
MindReadings.com
marken@mindreadings.com
310 474-0313

[From Bill Powers (2001.10.19.0554 MDT)]

Rick Marken (2001.10.18.2220) --

A collection of independent control systems
is not a control system. But such a collection does act like _virtual_
control system, keeping a controlled variable in a virtual reference
state. I just built a very simple example of a virtual control system of
this sort. I set up a set of 10 real control systems all controlling the
same perception relative to different reference specifications for the
variable they control. This collection of control systems ends up
keeping the common controlled variable in a virtual reference state that
happens to correspond to the average reference specification for the
collective.

I presume that these were relatively low-gain control systems, so that
extremes of output were avoided. It occurs to me that there may be another
kind of collective control that can avoid conflict. Suppose the 10
different people have 10 different reference levels not for the same thing,
but for the same _kind_ of thing. That is, they all have reference levels
for eating chocolate, but in differing amounts. This doesn't mean they are
in conflict, because one person's eating chocolate, when there is an
abundant supply, has no effect on how much another eats. Yet together all
these people determine the market for chocolate. If chocolate becomes
cheaper, they will all work a little less hard to get it, and so on. From
the standpoint of the chocolate producer, there is a collective control
system that must be reckoned with. If the producer raises prices in the
attempt to make more money, all the chocolate-eaters will spend a little
more to keep their various rates of consumption of chocolate the same, so
the strategy will work, up to a point. But if the price rise is too great,
budgetary constraints will come into play (the origin of the Giffen Effect)
and people will have to lower their reference levels for chocolate -- first
those with the highest reference levels, and last those who eat the least
chocolate.
Of course if the calorie content of chocolate is a lot higher than that of
any alternative, people up against budgetary limits might have to buy
_more_ chocolate, and a lot less of the cheaper alteratives, the true
Giffen Effect.

Which brings me to another point, which I expect Bill Williams to comment
on some time. The "value" of something, as I understand orthodox economics,
is simply the price that the market is willing to pay for it. By its
nature, "the market" is a mass phenomenon, and producers deal with it
rather than with individuals. This makes sense as long as we're talking
about single products in isolation. But when you consider a
multidimensional market, we now have to speak of _relative_ value (which I
believe arises as indifference curves), and relative value is determined by
many factors other than market value (as Bill W. has been saying). More
important, perhaps, _apparent_ relative value is determined, for most
people, by budgetary constraints: buying more of one thing necessarily
means buying less of everything else. Famous economists who operate out of
large universities and draw large salaries and speaking fees know very
little about budgetary constraints -- like Dick Cheney, they treat
suggestions about conservation as inexplicable eccentricities, like putting
on a hair shirt
just to be uncomfortable.

Anyhway, the relative value of things in a market is not necessarily the
same as any one person's relative values. You can have one subset of people
preferring one thing, and a different subset preferring something else. In
this case, the relative values of the two goods is not set by a budgetary
constraint, or by a conflict between personal preferences, but by the
relative numbers of people involved. I don't know quite where that leads,
but it's an interesting direction.

Finally, it occurs to me that the prejudice against "individualism" is
rather crippling, in that it keeps us from talking about individuals when
that is what we should be talking about. It's hard to substitute "person"
for "individual" in every context, expecially since things like "personal
preferences" can easily refer to collective phenomena.

It seems to me that we should be free to talk about individuals when we are
talking about specimens, and about mass phenomena when we are talking about
mass effects -- casting nets. We can't afford to let the sounds of words
upset us; clear communication is the important thing. There are undoubtably
mass laws of economics visible in group behaviors, but a full understanding
requires that we see how they emerge from the properties of interacting
individuals. Observable laws of mass behavior are not magical; they do not
float in the air between individuals. Economic laws must be like gas laws
in physics, where laws connecting temperature, pressure, and volume (while
perfectly valid) can be shown to arise from the interactions of moving,
spinning, semi-elastic molecules.

Oh, yeah, one last related subject. In studying Lovelock's Daisy World, I
realized that it is possible for a global regulatory system to arise from a
collection of local control systems. Suppose each plant controlled the
concentration of oxygen in its immediate vicinity (within a millimeter of
its surface). Between the plants, the oxygen concentration would _reflect_
the controlled concentrations, but would not be identical to the reference
condition. However, if some disturbance were to alter the oxygen
concentration between the plants, there would be a small disturbance of the
concentrations near the surfaces of _many_ plants, and all of these plants
would act by raising or lowering their oxygen output. This collective
response would add up to a strong resistance to the concentration
disturbance far from the plants, much stronger than any one plant would
create. So while acting strictly locally, the plants would end up having
collective control of the global concentration.

I would guess that this sort of thing is the origin of the "dead hand" of
supply and demand that supposedly regulates the market.

Best,

Bill P.

[From Rick Marken (2001.10.19.1200)]

Bill Powers (2001.10.19.0554 MDT)--

I presume that these were relatively low-gain control systems, so that
extremes of output were avoided.

Yes. They were relatively low gain and output limited.

It seems to me that we should be free to talk about individuals when we are
talking about specimens, and about mass phenomena when we are talking about
mass effects -- casting nets.

Yes. I think it's legitimate to model a control phenomenon using a control
model even though we know that the control phenomenon itself is actually an
emergent characteristic of the controlling done by an aggregate of individual
control systems.

Economic laws must be like gas laws
in physics, where laws connecting temperature, pressure, and volume (while
perfectly valid) can be shown to arise from the interactions of moving,
spinning, semi-elastic molecules.

Yes. But the gas laws (the analog of the aggregate control phenomena) are
still useful in themselves. The Gas Co. cares about these aggregate level gas
laws more than they care about how these laws emerge from the behavior of
individual molecules. Similarly, many economic policy analysts would care
about the aggregate economic laws than about how these laws emerge from the
behavior of individual controllers (though they would certainly want to
understand the latter as validation of the former).

Oh, yeah, one last related subject. In studying Lovelock's Daisy World, I
realized that it is possible for a global regulatory system to arise from a
collection of local control systems.

Yes. This is a perfect analog of the aggregate economic "virtual control
system" that, I think, arises from a collection of individual control systems
(controlling for consumption by contributing to production).

Best regards

Rick

···

--
Richard S. Marken, Ph.D.
The RAND Corporation
PO Box 2138
1700 Main Street
Santa Monica, CA 90407-2138
Tel: 310-393-0411 x7971
Fax: 310-451-7018
E-mail: rmarken@rand.org

[ From Bill Williams 18 October 2001 5:30 CST ]

Keynes _THe General THeory_ described " ... a long struggle of escape from
habitual modes of thought and expression." p. viii. "Individualism" has
for a long time represented one side of a family argument between two
mutually supporting but opposed arguments ( indivdualism vs collectivism )
about the nature of human experience which have been influential in economics.
In my view neither provides an adaquate foundation for econmic and social
theory. Bill Powers recognizes the defects in the collectivist position.
However, he seems to think that the individualist position is not subject to
similiar defects. THe following post continues what may be a tiresome,
repetitive argument that exponates of control theory ought to abandon both
sides of the family argument between individualism and collectivism. Neither
side appears to me to be able to withstand a sustained critical inspection.

···

______________________________________________________________________
Do you want a free e-mail for life ? Get it at http://www.email.ro/

I thought we had come to an agreement about the use of the term
"individual" but in your recent post you insist upon the use
of the term as being "essential" and describe aversions to
its use in terms of a "crippling" "prejudice." I disagree.

[ Bill Powers ]

It's hard to substitute "person" for "individual" in every context,
especially since things like "personal preferences" can easily refer
to collective phenomena.

I don't experience any difficulty in avoiding the use of
"individual" and using "person" whenever I wish to talk about
control theory in application to the behavior of a single specimen
of humanity. The singular, a "person's preferences," seems to me
to be unambiguous. If you wish to talk about a "collection of
person[s]" then there is no doubt a "collection" involved, but, I
wonder whether or in what sense there is a "collective phenomena."
I don't see any difficulty with the use of the term "interact"
however if that conveys the intended meaning. As I understand
it "phenomena" is a term that refers to a perceptual experience,
and it is an experience like any other experience which is
"experienced" by a person rather than a collective.

It seems to me that we should be free to talk about individuals when
we are talking about specimens, and about mass phenomena when we are
talking about mass effects -- casting nets. We can't afford to let
the sounds of words upset us; clear communication is the important

<thing.

I would agree, that "clear communication is the important thing."
And, anyone is, in most respects, free to "talk about individuals"
or most anything else in anyway they choose. Simply because I am
pointing out that if someone wishes to talk and communicate to
heterodox economists concerning potential applications of control
theory it would be well to avoid the use of the term "individual"
doesn't in anyway restrict anyone from going ahead and insisting
that the use of the term "individual" is essential inorder to
express some aspect of a control theory conception of human
behavior. I don't however, comprehend why the term "individual"
is required inorder to do so. But, as I think we agree either
"individual" or for that matter "person" are just symbols that
are meaningless sounds and patterns until they are assigned some
content. If you wish to being a presentation by pointing out
to an audience of heterodox economists that they don't understand
what the term "individual" really means, please preface it by
saying "Williams strongly suggested this wasn't a good idea,
but...."

I would assert that if you choose to attempt to communicate
control theory to an audience of heterodox economists using
the term "individual" you will lose nearly all of your audience
immediately. You may say "We can't afford to let the sounds of
words upset us." Fine. However, if you choose not to consider
how a particular symbol is understood by a particular community,
what is involved is not a matter of "upsetting us" but rather a
matter of misdirecting _them. And, the direction which this
misdirection takes is one of creating the impression that you
accept the assumptions, conclusions and policy implications
of orthodox economic theory.

What would you think of someone who proposed that "National
Socialism" provides the "final" solution to the issues
associated with mental health problems. Nothing wrong with the
words "National", or "socialism" ( at least in some circles )
or "final." But, there is as a result of historical association
a meaning assigned to these terms when used in combination. Any
mental health administrator who choose to ignore such associations
and use these words would risk having his job terminated. And,
no explanation of "what he really meant" would repair his career.

When his followers challenged Mohammed to command the mountain to
come to him, Mohammed instead quite sensibly rode to the mountain.
So, until you find a crowd of economists beating on your door, it
is my argument that if you wish to communicate to heterodox
economists substituting "person" for "individual" may avoid some
fundamental misunderstandings.

Finally, it occurs to me that the prejudice against "individualism"
is rather crippling, in that it keeps us from talking about
individuals when that is what we should be talking about.

First I don't regard my choice to avoid the use of the term
"individualism" as a "prejudice." "Individualism" is a term
which commonly refers to a historic phenomena concerning ideas
which have been and are widely held about human behavior. I've
made what I think is a considered judgement, rather than expressed
a prejudice, that rather than ignoring the assigned meaning of a
term, and rather than attempting to redefine a term which has been
consistently and carefully used in particular way for a very long
time, it is more "economical" to adopt a new easily understood
term "person" instead. I can't see, until shown otherwise, that
there is anything involved in my choice that is "crippling." I
define what "person" means so I can assign to the term any
content I see fit. The same is not true in the same sense of
the term "individual" or "individualism." In the case of these
terms any definition involves a relearning of a very deeply
acquired habit which assigns the term a commonly agreed upon
meaning.

But, perhaps we are not in agreement about content after all. In
the following you express a conception concerning "economic laws"
which no heterodox economist would agree.

There are undoubtedly mass laws of economics visible in group

behaviors, but a full understanding requires that we see how

they emerge from the properties of interacting individuals.
Observable laws of mass behavior are not magical; they do not
float in the air between individuals. Economic laws must be
like gas laws in physics, where laws connecting temperature,
pressure, and volume (while perfectly valid) can be shown to
arise from the interactions of moving, spinning, semi-elastic
molecules.

All heterodox economists that I know of regard the conception of
an "individual" as commonly defined as "magical." And, I regard
the concept as "magical" in the same sense that I regard Durkheim's
conception of collective "social forces" as "magical."

There is literally no such thing as the orthodox conception of
an individual-- nor any such literal thing as the heterodox
notion of a "culture." Both are in my view equally defective.

All persons are found in groups rather than in Atomistic, or
Robinson Crusoe isolation which is how the term "individual"
has been commonly defined and used. On the contrary all of
the technologies, and institutional heritages which are
characteristic of human experience are trans-personal in
character-- trans-personal in the sense that the art of
forging, while it is an art which is carried on by biological
specimens is also the heritage of a cultural community that
is passed on through learning. By "learning" I mean learning
in a sense consistent with control theory rather than with
behaviorism. "Persons" are creatures which have a history
consisting of memories and aspirations all of which are
developed and acquired in the course of association with other
people. Atoms or molecules do not have these traits. However,
see

McCloskey, Donald N. 1984 "The Literary Character of Economics"
  Daedalus v 113 # 3

  "I am indebted to Thomas McCaleb of Florida State University for
  letting me use this document. His "Capsule Contributions of Nobel
  Prize Winners in Economics" ( example: "Paul Samuelson, 1970:
  Men are molecules and economics is thermodynamics")

The gas laws work for atoms or molecules, but people have control
systems, and they interact in ways that are not characteristic of
atoms or molecules and this makes social theory somewhat different
than physics. Different does not imply "magical." However, ignoring
the difference, by equating economic theory to physics, is magical.
Any economic situation has in addition to the on-going processes of
production, consumption, tool accumulation, etc, a collection of
what Glasser talked about in terms of pictures in our heads about
the past, the present, and the future which atoms and molecules
don't have. In this respect, economic laws must be _unlike_ the
laws of physics in the sense of being historical in character. And,
it seems to me that a proper application of control theory, in
this respect, REQUIRES that economics be different.

It is my sense that some of the arguments which you make concerning
the role of an "individual" and the nature of "economic laws" are
directed toward foes from long ago and far away rather than
toward positions which I hold. I don't believe in the existence
of "super-organic" cultural forces that "mold", "shape", or
"condition" the behavior of persons or a people. As far as I
can see everything ought to be explainable in terms of the
interaction between people described in terms of control systems.
So, I don't see that I've gone off the track by preferring to talk
about "persons" and "people" instead of individuals.

[From Bill Powers (2001.10.18.1236 MDT)]

I guess Mises is not going to turn out to provide the way for control
theory to get into economics. Of course the old curmudgeon might still have
said a few interesting things. What are these laws of value, anyway?
Despite the Giffen Effect, there could be some validity to them.

[From Mike Acree (2001.10.18.1310 PDT)]

I ought to point out that I am not dismissing Mises and the other
Austrians as Mike Acree may think as "silly." Mises and the other
Austrian economists do have, I think, some characteristic deficiencies.

Mike says, "Any a priori claims by anyone will tend to look arrogant;"
I'm not sure "arrogant" is quite the word for Mises. I am convinced
that if Mises had the power economic heresy would be a capital offense.

One of the notions which I consider to be internally contradictory
in the Austrian scheme of things is the advocacy of "value-free
approach to the subject" matter of economics. The subject matter
of economics is it self concerned with value, I am of course familiar
with Lionell Robbins methodological position. A person I regard as a
good friend wrote a dissertation under Robbins, so I know and can
recite the arguments, including the motivations behind the
arguments-- its just that they don't make any sense to me.

And, When Mike prefaces "value-free" with the adjective "pragmatic"
I become completely confused. We are currently conducting a
seminar "pragmatism" here (UMKC) but it is the pragmatism of
Pierce, James, and Dewey. The question of how, pragmatism in
this sense would enter into a description of the Austrian position
is completely unfamiliar to me.

But, all of the existing traditions in economics, in my view, have
a common fundamental difficulty-- none of them have, as yet, been
reconstructed using control theory. And, I don't rule out the
possibility that people working in some derivation from the Austrian
tradition might make useful applications of control theory-- there
is I understand some efforts underway to construct simulations of
what the Austrians refer to the "spontaneous" emergence of
institutions. I don't see that there would be anything to preclude
their employing control theory in such efforts and generating useful
results. The effect, however, I would think of such effort were they
to succeed would be a drastic modification in the thinking of those
who carried it out. But, to varying degrees the same could be said
of the effect of adopting control theory by any of the existing
traditions in economics.

Powers raises the question, might there be, despite the Giffen effect,
something after all in the orthodox notions? I think there is good
reason why orthodox economists have thought that demand curves slope
downward. Most demand functions, I am convinced, do slope downward.
And, I am convinced, that the same explanation that accounts for the
exception of the Giffen case also provides a good explanation of the
tendency for most demand curves to slope downward. It is, however, a
different explanation than the one provided by orthodoxy-- I think
it fits the econometric data better than does the conventional argument.

I've arrived at the conclusion that it would be only by what would
amount to a miracle of improbability that any existing tradition
in economics could have arrived by chance at a position that would
be identical to an economic theory based upon a control theory
analysis. None of them that I am aware of appear to have done so.
I don't think it is difficult to identify deficiencies in this
respect in each of the existing traditions. But, despite their
deficiencies the various existing traditions may contain helpful
clues about how to construct a control theory economics-- if only
by their generating paradoxes and absurdities which the application
of control theory can correct.

So, my argument about the terms "individual" and "person" is
primarily a way for me to avoid becoming involved in a battle
between equally obsolete but still struggling intellectual
traditions in which I have some familiarity but little interest.

In conclusion: there are people who still put on blue and gray
uniforms and refight Civil War battles-- but these are mock
re-enactment's. The intellectual battle, however, between
individualists and collectivists despite its obsolescence is
still going on for real-- at least in some parts of the
universe. I don't see that advocates of a control theory
reconstruction of economics have a genuine interest in
becoming associated, by way of their choice of nomenclature,
with either side.

Best
  Bill Williams

( a correction to the "Essay" the quote p.28 is mistakenly
  attributed to Hayek. It is from Mises' _Human Action_. p. 28. )

[From Bill Powers (2001.10.20.0938 MDT)]

Bill Williams 18 October 2001 5:30 CST ==

Keynes _THe General THeory_ described " ... a long struggle of escape from
habitual modes of thought and expression." p. viii. "Individualism" has
for a long time represented one side of a family argument between two
mutually supporting but opposed arguments ( indivdualism vs collectivism )
about the nature of human experience which have been influential in

economics.

In my view neither provides an adaquate foundation for econmic and social
theory. Bill Powers recognizes the defects in the collectivist position.
However, he seems to think that the individualist position is not subject to
similiar defects. THe following post continues what may be a tiresome,
repetitive argument that exponates of control theory ought to abandon both
sides of the family argument between individualism and collectivism. Neither
side appears to me to be able to withstand a sustained critical inspection.

Our difficulty, Bill, if there be one, is only on the surface. I do not
believe in either a "collectivist" or an "individualist" point of view,
insofar as those are formally established positions taken by existing or
past schools of thought. I merely observe that there are individual
properties associated with each separate person (such as weight, loop gain,
or shade of skin color) and also that there are properties of collectives
that grow out of interactions among individuals (like the tendency to form
arcs and rings in the Crowd demo). Neither observation, as far as I can
see, implies any general philosophic position, or if it does, it does so
only by accident.. My view is similar to the one Phil Runkel expressed in
_Casting Nets and Testing Specimens_: mass statistics is a valid, if
limited, approach to studying the properties of collections of organisms,
and the testing of single specimens is a good approach to determining
properties of each person alone. And neither method is useful for studying
the subject-matter of the other.

The singular, a "person's preferences," seems to me
to be unambiguous. If you wish to talk about a "collection of
person[s]" then there is no doubt a "collection" involved, but, I
wonder whether or in what sense there is a "collective phenomena."

That's hard for me to understand. Isn't a "conversation" a collective
phenomenon? One person can't have a conversation. Only a collection of
persons can walk "single file" or "in columns of twos." Most social
phenomena that we perceive are collective by their very nature, aren't
they? The terms used to refer to them don't even have any meaning when
applied to one person -- for example, "transaction" or "interaction."

I don't see any difficulty with the use of the term "interact"
however if that conveys the intended meaning. As I understand
it "phenomena" is a term that refers to a perceptual experience,
and it is an experience like any other experience which is
"experienced" by a person rather than a collective.

I trust we're not getting into epistemology here, because if we were we
would have the same problem with the _all_ the things to which the term
"experience" applies (if any such things actually exist, which is my point
here).

I, too, take the word "phenomenon" to refer to perceptual experience. But
perceptual experiences can be about either single or collective entities. I
experience -- perceive -- something I call "society" or "culture" embedded
in groups of other people and the buildings in which they work and the
rules and principles under which I perceive that they work. At lower
levels, of course, I see only the people, one at a time, and the physical
environment, including artifacts, where I encounter them. But I also
perceive higher-level patterns, and it is these to which I refer with terms
like "culture" or "society" or "the system." My perception of these things
is, of course, mine alone; experience has taught me that other people can
have radically different perceptions of the same situations and
circumstances (even, sometimes, when we seem at first to agree).

I'm sure you understand all this, as I understand that the terms
"individual" and "collective" are code-words fraught with associations and
connotations that extend well beyond their common literal meanings, at
least among economists. So I certainly have no objection to finding
substitute words when trying to communicate with economists while not
leaning on their buttons. But I hope that between you and me, and among
PCTers in general, we don't have to worry about such buttons, or what Mary
calls "grooving on the sounds of words." The scientific language of PCT is,
as far as I can help it, denotative rather than connotative or
metaphorical. If you tell me not to say "individual" when talking to
economists, I will thank you for your advice and not use the term. I'll
think of it as saying "leg" to a Victorian old lady, where "limb" is the
only acceptable term. But I hope I'm not expected to acquire in myself the
same inconvenient reactions to such forbidden terms.

But, as I think we agree either
"individual" or for that matter "person" are just symbols that
are meaningless sounds and patterns until they are assigned some
content. If you wish to begin a presentation by pointing out
to an audience of heterodox economists that they don't understand
what the term "individual" really means, please preface it by
saying "Williams strongly suggested this wasn't a good idea,
but...."

Indeed.

.. substituting "person" for "individual" may avoid some
fundamental misunderstandings.

It's just inconvenient to have to stay alert for all the ways in which the
word "individual" and its derivarives can crop up in a discussion, and
search for some other term. If I want to talk about the positions of
individuals in a crowd of control systems, I'd have to pause, strike out
"individuals," and think of another word that doesn't necessarily refer to
humans or to mechanisms but would include both -- "single entities," for
example. "Persons" wouldn't be suitable in that case.

Anyway, we don't have any real arguments here. At least I don't think we do.

I've
made what I think is a considered judgement, rather than expressed
a prejudice, that rather than ignoring the assigned meaning of a
term, and rather than attempting to redefine a term which has been
consistently and carefully used in particular way for a very long
time, it is more "economical" to adopt a new easily understood
term "person" instead.

No need to defend yourself here; the "prejudice" of which I spoke was not
yours, but that of the economists who insist on such a narrow
interpretation of a word which was, until they got hold of it, a useful
part of the language. I could complain that the word "control" has a
special technical meaning for PCTers, and expect others to avoid using it
"incorrectly" when talking to me, but somehow I don't think I'd have much
luck with that.

But, perhaps we are not in agreement about content after all. In
the following you express a conception concerning "economic laws"
which no heterodox economist would agree.

There are undoubtedly mass laws of economics visible in group

behaviors, but a full understanding requires that we see how

they emerge from the properties of interacting individuals.

All heterodox economists that I know of regard the conception of
an "individual" as commonly defined as "magical." And, I regard
the concept as "magical" in the same sense that I regard Durkheim's
conception of collective "social forces" as "magical." ...

All persons are found in groups rather than in Atomistic, or
Robinson Crusoe isolation which is how the term "individual"
has been commonly defined and used.

But when Robinson Crusoe was marooned, did he not exist as an individual in
isolation from others, at least until Friday showed up? And even when he
returned to "civilization", did he not still have some characteristics
which were his alone, independent of other people's characteristics? I'm
not disputing that he had characteristics, even when alone, that he
acquired through his interactions with other human beings, such as
language, many elements of knowledge and belief about his world, and
interpersonal feelings. But even these were shaped, as they were being
acquired, by Crusoe's brain and his brain alone. And many elements of
Crusoe's makeup were of his own invention, arrived at through interacting
with the inanimate world. Maybe my view will make sense when put this way:
Robinson Crusoe _contained_ many characteristics acquired through his
interactions with human society, but once acquired, those characteristics
were unique to him, individual in the common sense of the word. They became
part of the individual who thought of himself as Robinson Crusoe.

On the contrary all of
the technologies, and institutional heritages which are
characteristic of human experience are trans-personal in
character-- trans-personal in the sense that the art of
forging, while it is an art which is carried on by biological
specimens is also the heritage of a cultural community that
is passed on through learning.

This way of putting your case seems to reify these institutions and
heritages, whereas in PCT we would first identify them as a person's
perceptions. Only then might we conjecture as to their ontological reality.
To claim otherwise, you have to prove that there is some direct pipeline
between your own private experiences and the objective reality in which we
all assume we are embedded -- a pipeline that is not subject to
ideosyncratic interpretations. Can you prove that? If you can't, then I
would claim it is a mistake to speak of "technologies and institutional
heritages" as if they were objective realities.

You mention forging; as it happens, my son Denny is trying to get set up to
do casting for forging the old-fashioned way, but just for fun. The books
are helpful, but only direct interaction with the materials has taught him
what the authors were trying to convey about their own experiences as they
mastered this technology. Such learning is very personal, and is not simply
a handing down of past knowledge. "You have to learn it for yourself" is a
cliche, and therefore probably an abiding truth as well that people keep
rediscovering.

In my opinion, what we learn is not what we are taught, _especially_ when
it concerns human ideas and institutions. We learn what we are prepared to
believe, or what we have no reason to disbelieve. That is different for
each of us. And once we have learned, what we have learned resides in our
own individual skulls where it has become part of us -- just as what we eat
has been reworked until it's compatible with our own individual organization.

The gas laws work for atoms or molecules, but people have control
systems, and they interact in ways that are not characteristic of
atoms or molecules and this makes social theory somewhat different
than physics.

Yes, of course. Gas molecules interact according to the laws of physics and
the properties of individual molecules. Control systems interact according
to the laws of physics (in the environment) and the properties of
individual control systems. It was not suggested that the properties of
molecules are the same as the properties of control systems. The intended
parallel was between the mass behavior of interacting molecules (volume,
temperature, pressure, gas laws) and the mass behavior of interacting
control systems (arc and rings, following and chasing, suppky-and-demand,
and other regularities of the whole). In each case, the collection shows
regularities that are not properties of any one element of the aggregate,
and indeed cannot exist in one element (what is the pressure of a single
molecule of gas? What is a transaction "between" a single person?).

Different does not imply "magical." However, ignoring
the difference, by equating economic theory to physics, is magical.

I hope you can see now that I wasn't doing that. I wouldn't pursue the
matter, but I care what you think about me.

It is my sense that some of the arguments which you make concerning
the role of an "individual" and the nature of "economic laws" are
directed toward foes from long ago and far away rather than
toward positions which I hold.

Possibly so -- in fact I have had no reason to think that anything I said
went against what you thought. My arguments were supposed to be directed at
the economic ideas you described as heterodox and orthodox.

I don't believe in the existence
of "super-organic" cultural forces that "mold", "shape", or
"condition" the behavior of persons or a people. As far as I
can see everything ought to be explainable in terms of the
interaction between people described in terms of control systems.
So, I don't see that I've gone off the track by preferring to talk
about "persons" and "people" instead of individuals.

I see that this still rankles a bit. I repeat, I was not talking about
_your_ superstition, or saying you had any, but about knee-jerk reactions
to (or perhaps better, rigidly narrow ingterpretations of) a word like
"individual" that the heterodox economists seem to have. I understood that
your preference was simply an acknowledgment of the practicalities of
dealing with heterodox economists, and not a reflection of your own
beliefs. You seem to be doing your best to say I misunderstood you! At
least your message seems a little mixed.

It's hard for me to belief that ideas are simply "handed down" when
reasonably intelligent people like you and me have difficulty handing to
each other ideas that we are actually convinced that we already share!

Best,

Bill P.

[From Fred Nickols (2001.10.21.0615)] --

Rick Marken (2001.10.17.1400)]

Fred Nickols (2001.10.17.0958) --

> I'm certainly not all the way through his book by any
> means, but it seems to me that the view of economics set
> forth by Ludwig von Mises comes awfully close to being a
> control theory view of people and markets. See, for
> example, his book: Human Action - A Treatise on
> Economics.

What is it about von Mises' economics that leads you to this conclusion?
I've read some things by and about von Mises and I didn't get the
impression that von Mises came close to having a "control theory view"
of economics.

Well, as is often the case, my enthusiasm got the better of me. In my
remark above, I probably should have stopped after people and not included
"markets." von Mises clearly puts economics in the context of a science of
human action instead of situating human action in the context of economics
and so I am incorrect if I implied that he was taking a control theory view
of economics (which I never exactly said anyway). That aside, I'd also be
incorrect if I said that von Mises took a control theory view of anything.
I doubt he had much knowledge of control theory per se. Note: My quote of
von Mises is from page 13 of the 4th edition of Human Action.

What caught my attention as I began reading von Mises' book is his
statement about happiness. In a section titled The Prerequisites of Human
Action, he observes, "We call contentment or satisfaction that state of a
human being which does not and cannot result in any action." A couple of
sentences later: "The incentive that impels a man to act is always some
uneasiness."
That struck me as having a lot in common with the notion of an error signal
resulting from a comparison of a reference specification and a perception.

The bottom line is that I agree with your last sentence above: I don't
think von Mises took a control theory view of economics either. Indeed,
from what I can tell, his basic take on economics is that it reflects the
outcomes of individual actions who are acting purposefully and in pursuit
on their own goals. His main aim seems to be that tying back economic
theory to individual actions. His view of collectives is evident in
remarks like the following:

"First, we must realize that all actions are performed by individuals." (p.42)

"That there are nations, states, and churches, that there is social
cooperation under the division of labor, becomes discernible only in the
actions of certain individuals." (p.43)

With the exception of responding to Bill Williams' response to this same
posting of mine, I think I'll pipe down until I have gotten further into
von Mises' book.

Regards,

Fred Nickols
The Distance Consulting Company
"Assistance at A Distance"
http://home.att.net/~nickols/distance.htm
nickols@att.net
(609) 490-0095

[From Fred Nickols (2001.10.21.1649)] --

[ From Bill Williams 17 October 2001 1:15 CST ]

>[From Fred Nickols (2001.10.17.0958)] --

>I'm certainly not all the way through his book by any
>means, but it seems to me that the view of economics set
>forth by Ludwig von Mises comes awfully close to being a
>control theory view of people and markets. See, for
>example, his book: Human Action - A Treatise on
>Economics.

It seems to me that as yet, what a "control theory view of people
and markets" is, has yet to be determined with any conclusiveness.

I'd agree with the "market" piece of that but I think Bill Powers et al are
well on their way to articulating a control theory view of people. My own
view of markets is that they consist of people, individuals acting singly
and in concert with others. I also don't want to wander off into
"collectives" at this point but I absolutely love von Mises' comments found
on page 42 of my copy of von Mises' book:

"The hangman, not the state, executes a criminal. It is the meaning of
those concerned that discerns in the hangman's action an action of the
state. A group of armed men occupies a place. It is the meaning of those
concerned which imputes this occupation not the officers and soldiers on
the spot, but to their nation. If we scrutinize the meaning of the various
actions performed by individuals we must necessarily learn everything about
the actions of collective wholes. For a social collective has no existence
and reality outside of the individual members' actions. The life of a
collective is lived in the actions of the individuals constituting its
body. There is no social collective conceivable which is not operative in
the actions of some individuals. The reality of a social integer consists
in its directing and releasing definite actions on the part of
individuals. Thus the way to a cognition of collective wholes is through
an analysis of the individuals' actions."

The following notes from Mises and others of the Austrian school,
Of which he is a member, illustrate points with which I do not agree.

1) Mises says in _Human Nature and Conduct_ p. 184. "Governors
appointed by popular vote are Fuhrers."

I don't know what to do with the citation above. I have a copy of Human
Nature and Conduct, but its author is John Dewey, not Ludwig von Mises. In
my copy of Human Action (4th edition), von Mises does talk about fuhrers
but in the context of a hegemonic state where the decisions are made by one
person, elected or otherwise. Can you be more specific regarding the
source for the statement above?

2) Mises, 1960 in _Epistomological Problems of Economics_ states

  p. 24. "There can be no doubt whatsoever concerning the aprioristic
  character of these disciplines [concerned with the science of human
  action]."

  p. 26. "...the elementary laws of value are valid without exception
  for all human action. p. 27.

In my copy of Human Action (4th edition), von Mises does make an argument
that aprioristic knowledge applies to the science of human action, which he
calls "praxeology." And the 4th edition contains a section titled The
Epistemological Problems of the Sciences of Human Action. He also makes
the statement on page 15 that Praxeology (the science of human action) "is
indifferent to the ultimate goals of action. Its findings are valid for
all kinds of action irrespective of the ends aimed at. It is a science of
means, not of ends."

Later, on page 21, he writes, "The teachings of praxeology and economics
are valid for every human action without regard to its underlying motives,
causes, and goals. The ultimate judgments of value and the ultimate ends
of human action are given for any kind of scientific inquiry; they are not
open to any further analysis. Praxeology deals with the ways and means
chosen for the attainment of such ultimate ends. It object is means, not
ends."

I don't have a copy of "Epistemological Problems of Economics" (which I
assume is an essay or paper by von Mises) but I'll do my best to check it
out, see if I can locate the quote you cite above, including its context,
and respond once I've done that.

Mill, John Stuart Political Economy Book III chap i in a somewhat
earlier ( 1847 I think ) statement argued,

   "Happily, there is nothing in the laws of Value which
   remain for the present or any future writer to clear up:
   the theory of the subject is complete."

My copy of Mill's Political Economy is dated 1872 but it'll have to do. In
the section you cite, Mill does indeed make the statement you quote;
however, the opening phrase isn't marked by a colon and it doesn't end with
a period -- there is a semicolon at the end of the opening phrase and the
statement above ends with a colon. Mill's complete statement reads as follows:

"Happily, there is nothing in the laws of Value which remain for the
present or any future writer to clear up; the theory of the subject is
complete: the only difficulty to be overcome is that of stating it as to
solve by anticipation the chief perplexities which occur in applying it:
and to do this, some minuteness of exposition, and considerable demands on
the patience of the reader, are unavoidable." (Book III, Exchange, Chapter
1 - Of Value, p. 265). Clearly, Mill was being anything but dismissive.

Whether the theory of Value was complete at the time Mills penned those
words -- or now -- or if it is still an open issue is not for me to
say. I'm no economist nor even a student of economics.

I would regard the Giffen Effect as an example of an _exception_ to
the elementary laws of value which was not understood by either Mill
nor Mises. However, according to Hayek his work has attained such
perfection that,

    "... no kind of experience can ever force us to discard or modify
    a priori theorems. They are not derived from experience; they are
    logically prior to it ... p. 28.

Two comments about the remarks above. First, I suspect von Mises
understood the Giffen effect. His view of human action is all about human
beings choosing based on preferences, available resources, technology and
so on. So, that poor people might choose to buy more bread when the price
of bread goes up doesn't seem to me to be something he wouldn't
understand. Second, is your quote immediately above from Hayek or from von
Mises? In either case, what's the source?

Mises believes that he _knows_ what are the correct _a priori_ theorems upon
which all social and economic theory should be based. No doubt is possible.
All that remains is for the rest of the world to recognize his brilliance.

It is clear that you believe von Mises believes that. What I've read so
far conveys a picture of a much more humble person and one who sees clearly
what many prefer to overlook. von Mises' own view of what it takes to know
those a priori theorems is perhaps best captured in these words of his from
page 64 of the 4th edition.

"The scope of praxeology is the explication of the category of human
action. All that is needed for the deduction of all praxeological theorems
is knowledge of the essence of human action. It is a knowledge that is our
own because we are men; no being of human descent that pathological
conditions have not reduced to a merely vegetative existence lacks it. No
special experience is needed in order to comprehend these theorems, and no
experience, however rich, could disclose them to a being who did not know a
priori what human action is. We must bethink ourselves and reflect upon
the structure of human action. Like logic and mathematics, praxeological
knowledge is in us; it does not come from without."

That doesn't sound like the rant of an egomaniac who claims to have all the
answers, which is the view of von Mises that I have drawn from your
words. So, I'll take the remarks above as your personal expression of
distaste for von Mises and let it go at that.

In a similar statement Robbins, Lionell. _The Nature and Significance
of Economic Science_

     "The efforts of economists during the last hundred and
     fifty years have resulted in the establishment of a body of
     generalizations whose substantial accuracy and importance are
     open to question only by the ignorant or perverse." p. 1.

No comment on Robbins' remark except to ask what that has to do with von Mises.

What should be done with those of us ( the "ignorant and perverse" ) who
do not agree with Professor Von Mises? He tells us in

3) Mises, Ludwig Von 1949 _Human Action: A Treatise on Economics_
  New Haven: Yale University Press

         "It is imperative to bar such scoundrels from access to the
        universities and their articles from being printed in the
       periodicals of the associations of university teachers." p. 871.

Well, I'm happy to report I found that comment in my copy of the 4th
edition. It appears on page 875 in the 4th edition. More important, it
occurs in the context of a discussion of economics in the
universities. von Mises, arguing that there are no such things as
"economics of labor" or "economics of agriculture" but only one coherent
body of economics, noted that specialists in these areas do not deal with
economics but, rather, the doctrines of various pressure groups. He went
on to say that whenever these specialists are challenged, as when someone
questions interventionism, the specialists are inclined to label that
person as "a bribed champion of the unjust claims of big business." He
closes this paragraph with the sentence you've cited above. My reading of
this section leaves me with the distinct impression that von Mises was
saying that the specialists want those who challenge them barred from
access and having their articles printed. In short, the statement above
reflects the specialists' view, not von Mises' view.

As for your own writing, I have a bad taste in my mouth (figuratively
speaking) from the way you tarred von Mises with Robbins' words in your
comments above.

My points of disagreement are, 1) I am for lack of a better system
a democrat-- that is I think popular votes provide the best means we
have for selecting who shall rule the community.

I think what you say in the paragraph above gets at what von Mises was
talking about when he talked about elected fuhrers. I don't view my vote
as electing anyone to rule; I elect people to represent, not rule.

Because I am
a democrat Mises would say that I am for the establishment of
authoritarian Fuhrers.

If you elect people to rule instead of represent then I'm not sure that
makes you a democrat. Sounds more like a socialist to me.

This is not how I perceive my politics.
I am of the opinion that if we are of the opinion that guns should
not be sold to children, we should be permitted to pass such a
law. Mises, however, states

Mises Ludwing von 1950 Human action: a Treatise on Economics

   for Mises, all government intervention in the market is irrational
   and therefore contrary to economic law see p. 194.

I'll see if I can find a copy of the 1950 or first edition and check out
page 194.

I don't think of a law prohibiting children from buying guns as
necessarily "irrational."

Neither do I, however, it seems to me to overlook the other half of the
transaction, namely, adults and children who are selling them. In this
case, as in many others, I'd be more inclined to go after the sellers than
the buyers. Further, I fail to see how a law prohibiting children from
buying guns qualifies as government intervention in the market. I thought
government intervention was of a much grander scale, having to do with
setting wages, controlling prices, determining interest rates and so on.

2) I think economics ought to become a hypothetical/empirical discipline
like the other sciences of physics and biology, Mises argues for an
_a priori_ system and he will tell us which are the correct propositions--
which no reasoning or factual information is to be allowed subsequently
to overturn. No doubts are to be allowed-- certainly not from the
outer circles of the "ignorant and perverse."

3) because I disagree with him Mises would label me a scoundrel and
prohibit, me from studying or teaching in a university. And he would
censor me by denying me the possibility of publishing in a scholarly
journal.

Re my comments above about the context in which von Mises wrote the
statement in question, I think you're attributing something to von Mises
which doesn't belong to him.

As I understand it, Mises quite plainly would deny me
what as an American citizen are my rights concerning free speech
and freedom of association.

That you see matters that way seems clear enough; I think you see them
incorrectly.

This is not a remote possibility. In
my first job teaching, I was a witness in a suit filed on the basis
of the universities violating a professors right to freedom of
speech and association ( the 1st and 13th? amendments ) The
university administration quite plainly lied under oath during the
trial of the case. Fortunately the jury did not believe them.

The Austrian School in economics of which Von Mises is a part has
been an interesting phenomena. In the above passages, however, I
have difficulty seeing how it "comes awfully close" to representing
a "control theory" point of view. Nickols asserts this to be the
case, and I can anticipate how such a position might be argued.
But, I do not regard the arguments as sound, however plausible
they might initially appear to be.

I was no doubt overzealous in my reaction to von Mises' remark about
happiness being that state requiring no action and relating it to a no
error condition and probably sloppy in extending that past people to markets.

In the work I have done on the Giffen effect, and other control
theory applications I think it would be difficult for most people
to detect my politics. Looking at the code for the Giffen effect
simulation is not going to tell most people if I am a socialist
or not, or alternatively something else altogether. According,
however, to Mises the very character of the work and the methods
I used are such that the work deserves to be snuffed out. Mises
presents himself as the representative of the highest reaches of
learning and civilization. I have a quite different opinion.

Again, I think you're attacking von Mises on the basis of a specious
argument on your part.

Hayek, Fredric A. 1944 _The Road to Serfdom_ a fellow Austrian
school economist with Mises says,

  p. 166. Individualism is ... an attitude of humility before [the]
  social process and of tolerance to other opinions." p. 166.

How, Hayek's assertion squares with Mises statements has never
been satisfactorily explained.

Which statements of von Mises? The only ones I've seen you point to were
taken out of context or are as yet unsupported.

Sadly many of those who have opposed the pattern of thought which
Mises represents have adopted an even worse set of constructs as
a result of their having adopted assumptions drawn from behaviorism.
The upshot of the essay which I wrote in an effort to persuade Bill
Powers that he should reconsider his use of the term "individual"
was that neither economic orthodoxy nor economic heterodoxy
contains a sufficiently worthwhile point of view to use as a
starting point for constructing a control theory economics.
Control theory I would argue would be better served not to
affiliate it with either side in its choice of a nomenclature.
Markets are not divinely inspired nor are they necessarily demonic.
If we choose to do so I think by popular vote we ought to be
permitted to prohibit children from buying guns. Mises holds
a different view, such a prohibition according to him is a
violation of the rights of property-- this is according to
him a right that should over rule a popular vote.

What can you point to in von Mises' writings that supports your argument above?

Obviously I have opinions about the issues involved. They are,
however, opinions concerning which I regard discussion to be a
possibility. For Mises this would not be the true. Once the
correct propositions have been enunciated by him the issue is
settled and the matter is closed.

Nowhere, except in your words above, can I find anything substantiating the
assertion that von Mises was setting himself up as the final or ultimate
authority on anything. It is quite clear that your distaste for von Mises
is utter and implacable. Frankly, that doesn't bode well for "discussion
as a possibility."

Best
  Bill Williams

I haven't verified the quotes, so I hope they are correct.

Clearly some of the aren't. However, if you can sharpen them up I'll be
happy to check them out. I, too, love a good discussion.

Regards,

Fred Nickols
The Distance Consulting Company
"Assistance at A Distance"
http://home.att.net/~nickols/distance.htm
nickols@att.net
(609) 490-0095

At 13:35 William wrote about Re: Essay from Bill Williams on 20 Oct
2001,

"One of the notions which I consider to be internally contradictory in the
Austrian scheme of things is the advocacy of "value-free approach to the
subject" matter of economics. The subject matter of economics is it self
concerned with value, I am of course familiar with Lionell Robbins
methodological position. A person I regard as a good friend wrote a
dissertation under Robbins, so I know and can recite the arguments,
including the motivations behind the arguments-- its just that they don't
make any sense to me."

[From Norman Hovda (2001.10.22 1015 CDT)

FWIW, I find the following indexed references (value free, 10, 21-22, 882-
885) from Mises _Human Action_ for those who may be interested.

http://www.mises.org/humanaction/introsec3.asp#p10

http://www.mises.org/humanaction/chap1sec4.asp#p21

http://www.mises.org/humanaction/chap39sec1.asp#p882

Enjoy,
nth

[From Bill Powers (2001.10.21.1201 MDT)]

Norm Hovda (2001.10.21) --

FWIW, I find the following indexed references (value free, 10, 21-22, 882-
885) from Mises _Human Action_ for those who may be interested.

http://www.mises.org/humanaction/introsec3.asp#p10

http://www.mises.org/humanaction/chap1sec4.asp#p21

http://www.mises.org/humanaction/chap39sec1.asp#p882

I looked them up. I see, for example, this:

               It must be emphasized that the destiny of modern
civilization as developed by the white peoples in
                 the last two hundred years is inseparably linked with the
fate of economic science. This civilization
                 was able to spring into existence because the peoples were
dominated by ideas which were the
                 application of the teachings of economics to the problems
of economic policy. It will and must
                 perish if the nations continue to pursue the course which
they entered upon under the spell of
                 doctrines rejecting economic thinking.

These are important statements, I assume. Why does he make them? Just take,
"This civilization
was able to spring into existence because the peoples were dominated by
ideas which were the
application of the teachings of economics to the problems of economic
policy. "

He says that is true. Is it true? Why is it true? What led him to that
conclusion -- what facts, what methods of reasoning, what theories? Of
course he doesn't say: that't not his style. He just tells us his
conclusions, with so much confidence that (I guess) we're supposed to be
swept away by the force of his statements. I am not swept away, so I see no
reason at all to accept the truth of that sentence, of any of the others
around it above, or of anything else he has written. I say, Mises is a
liar. What has he said to prove otherwise?

Best,

Bill P.