[Martin Taylor 2007.09.20.09.09]
I'm trying, as always to bring the discussions back to PCT. It seems very hard, since most of the content quickly goes back to the writers' views on the correctness of their own positions, whether they believe in the Libertarianism philosophy (knowledgeably or not). My little disturbances are easly countered by strong control systems.
Richard has said that the unbelievers don't know the main tenets of Libertarianism, despite their having been stated repeatedly on this forum. I must confess for myself that having read all of this thread, as well as others in which the topic has arisen, I am rather mystified as to what those tenets are. Every time I think I understand, either Mike or Richard says something that convinces me my understanding is very poor.
My lack of understanding is what led me to write one of my little disturbances, which Rick called an English-style humourous response to Mike Acree. It wasn't meant to be humorous at all. Mike had written a clear statement [From Mike Acree (2007.09.18.1157 PDT)]:
But color me a fiscal respectatarian, too: No prohibitions on capitalist acts between consenting adults.
I considered this to be something I understood, and I thought I understood one other tenet of Libertarianism, that there would be no prohibitions of people voluntarily combining to promote their own interest, such as, for example, paying taxes to the group in support of a project, or creating a police force to sell services and to protect their own interests (this seems to be implied by Mike's "no prohibition" tenet, anyway). Mike at least responded, but in a disarmingly non-responsive way, so I'll repeat the question in different words later in this message in the hope of getting comments on where the logic, which demonstrates a self-contradiction, goes astray.
Before I do that, one short PCT-related comment about Laws and regulations. What is prohibited by laws that are enforced by police are actions. Laws don't affect the values of reference signals, except inasmuch as the corresponding perceptions specifically imply certain kinds of action (e.g. "I want to see him dead by my own hand", rather than "I want to see him dead"). If certain actions are prohibited AND the person has a reference to perceive him/herself as law-abiding, then the environmental feedback pathway doesn't invlude the effects of the prohibited actions, and the person will use other feedback pathways.
There are two main reasons the law refers to actions and not reference levels for perceptions: (1) Only actions are visible to outsiders, and (2) Onle actions have side-effects that may create disturbances to the controlled perceptionsof other people or may change the environmental feeback paths of other people. Factor 1 is a practical consideration that might conceivably be changed by future technology, whereas Factor 2 is a permanent issue.
Factor 2 is what led to my question to Mike.
I assume that "No prohibitions on capitalist acts between consenting adults" is a Libertarian tenet, since Mike presented it in that context.
I made the further assumption that another tenet is that there is no prohibition against people voluntarily combining to advance their own interests.
These two assumptions seem to be mutually inconsistent, so either they are not both part of Libertarian philosophy, or my analysis is faulty. I asked Libertarians on the list to explain which was the case.
The argument is simple: Acts have side-effects. Side-effects may disturb other people's controlled perceptions or affect their environmental feeback pathways. "capitalist acts betweem consenting parties" are a class of acts that may have such side effects. In normal PCT, a person acts to counter a disturbance. The person's actions in counering the disturbance may include joining a voluntary organization or committing a "capitalist act" by hiring such an organization (e.g. a private police force). The disturbance-countering acts may prohibit the original "capitalist act" that would, if committed, cause the disturbance.
Mike answered, not by addressing the argument or my misunderstanding of the Libertarian tenets, but by offering a sample of buy and sell trades of different kinds. I hope that this time it is the argument or its premises that are addressed.
However, illustrations are not unhelpful, so I propoe one of my own. X owns some forested hilly terrain. Y would like to buy logging rights, and Y is known to use clear-cut methods, being cheaper than other logging techniques. Z owns property at the bottom of the area, across the highway. Other people, P...Q enjoy the existing view and like to hike over that terrain, which X has permitted. Many other people use the highway at the foot of the area.
I have mentioned three classes of people whose controlled perceptions or environmental feedback paths might be affected by the voluntary transaction between X and Y. Z has a direct interest, since landslides from the clearcut would affect that value of his property, and would alter the uses to which his property could be put. A landslide migh even destroy Z's house and kill his family.
Can Z declare a prohibition on the transaction between X and Y? If Z isn't rich enough to offer X more money than Y is offering, Z has no mechanism, acting alone, without initiating force of some kind. Can Z hire some private police to enforce a prohibition on the transaction? What would they do without the threat of initiating force? I conclude that Z must do nothing and simply accept that the transaction freely entered into by X and Y may result in the death of his family or requre him to move his house and lose the value of his property.
Can the people who like to look at the forested view or hike through the terrain do something to counter the disturbances to their controlled perceptions? The disturbance to any one person is probably quite minor (ther may be exceptions), but there are a lot of them. How can they combine their individually weak counters to those disturbances in a way that is consistent with Libertarian philosophy, without the possibiity of there being a "prohibition on capitalist acts between consenting adults"?
How about the people who use the highway every day to get to work? The disturbance in their case would be massive if the highway were to be destroyed in a landslide that would be a side-effect of the transaction between X and Y.
I may have quite misunderstood how these situations would be resolved under the tenets of Libertarianism, in the absence of government regulation backed by the threat of force. But in the narrower sense, Mike's "No prohibitions on capitalist acts between consenting adults" seems clear enough, and to imply its own negation without reference to further assumptions.
Where am I wrong, and could the answer please be put in a way that helps elucidate what Libertarianism is about in the language of PCT?
Martin