[From Rick Marken (2006.08.22.0900)]
Bill Powers (2006.08.21.1515 mdt)--
Rick Marken (2006.08.21.1600)]
I agree that "rights" (to the extent that they are perceptions and not references -- see below) are not objective, in the sense that there is nothing in our models of external reality that corresponds to what we perceive as "rights". But isn't that true of all perceptions?
I'm realizing that "rights," like "oughts", doesn't really refer to the things we have rights about, or ought to do. It's asserting something else about whatever it is...
So my conclusion is that a right exists only by agreement, and only if there is some means of enforcing it. The only actual rights are those we can persuade others to grant us, enough others so that the rights would be very hard to take away from us. It helps, of course, if they have reason to want the same rights.
Your discussion of rights is very interesting, and I agree with it. But it doesn't really address my question, which was about the relationship between perceptual variables and our models of external reality. I am wondering whether you think any perceptual variable can be considered objective in the sense that it corresponds to something in our models of external reality. I'm just interested in hearing a discussion of the relationship between perception and reality in PCT. I understand that many (most) perceptions, such as the taste of a milk shake, are constructions based on sensed aspects of external reality. There is no milk shake taste out there (according to our models); just the molecules that elicit various taste sensations, which are combined to produce the taste "milk shake".
In your earlier discussion you implied that some perceptions (like "rights", assuming they are perceptions) are less objective than others because these perceptions don't correspond to anything in our models of external reality. I was just asking whether some perceptions are more objective than others. For example, color could be considered an objective perception because changes in color correspond to changes in what we model as changes in wavelength of light. But we also know that a color perception that corresponds to a single wavelength can also result from the appropriate combination of 2 or 3 wavelengths. So it seems to me that color is no more objective, in terms of correspondence between perception and model of external reality, than the perception of a principle like "the right to bear arms". What do you think?
I had been arguing earlier for the idea that perception can be objective in the sense that people can agree (often after much discussion, pointing and whatever) that they are having the same perception (such as "the meter reading is 25 amps"). And I think in most of these cases they are having the same perception. So I think this kind of "inter-observer agreement" objectivity is exists but that the "correspondence of perception to external reality" type objectivity probably doesn't.. What do you think?
Best
Rick
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