I am attending the University of Cincinnati. I am currently enrolled in a
class about PCT. The book we are using is titled Introduction to Modern
Pschycology: The Control-Theory View. As a general class topic, we take
each chapter and work on it seperately for the day, which by the way is
twice a week. During our discussion, we generally raise questions that the
rest of the class can answer, but this time we ran into a wall. Our
question was, on chapter 10, page 143, section 10.3.1, third paragraph,
first sentence "The control-theory. . . are percieved at the . . ." what is
the exact meaning of percieved here at this point? We came to some
different conclusions. First we broke down the activity into three seperate
areas. 1.) That a siganal is transported through the median, air, water,
etc. and reaches our stimulus receptors. 2.) The neurons fire to let us
know we have a signal, which travels the length of the nervous system and
reaches the neg. feedback loops. 3.) We respond to that signal by reacting
to bring the K value back to minimal disturbance. What part is this then of
the actually "percieved"?
Some in the class argued that if you take into account all of it,
then there is no way that all the senses can be occuring at the same rate,
i.e. if your eye records light, it has a shorter length to travel than say
from the bottom of your foot for touch. That must make some kind of time
difference. Others argued that it was only in step 2 that you were talking
about the consistant timing. But the problem here is that in the experiment
given, it seems that it must incorporate everyone of the steps, or does not
as fully support your view in this particular case. What it amounts to is a
simple definition problem. You could respond by Email rather than clog the
net with this answer, in that case, my email is georgemd@ucunix.san.uc.edu
By the way, we all enjoy and think your theory works well in all
situations.
Mark D. George
