[from Gary Cziko 930527.1936 UTC]
Greg Williams (930526) said:
Browsing through the L&L book, I came across the following (on page
133), perhaps indicating where Locke is "coming from" in a nutshell:"The studies reported in Chapter 5 that measured personal goals
after the goals were assigned show that the two are HIGHLY CORRELATED
(r = .52)." [Italics added.]
Ouch. This is about 85% useless as a correlation; in other words HIGHLY
USELESS [Italics in original].
I wonder why it is so low. Perhaps it is due to measurement error.
I've done much better "assigning" goals. I once asked all the females in
my statistics class to stand up and the males to remain seated. All the
females stood and none of the males did. That gave me a perfect
correlation (acually phi-coefficient). Perhaps I should write book about
that.
I suppose I might not get such a high correlation if assigned different
goals like "give me your money" or "study 4 hours every day."--Gary
ยทยทยท
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